Why is LORD in all caps?, page 1
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reply posted on 29-11-2009 @ 03:09 AM by silver tongue devil
reply to post by Alethea



Same reason the 'G' is.

To distinguish the One god from the others. What? Polytheism? Shh.

Take note too of the common phrase Lord of lords.

LORD tells you the One God Almighty is being referred to.



reply posted on 29-11-2009 @ 03:13 AM by silver tongue devil
reply to post by Alethea



en.wikipedia.org...

Also it helps to understand the Tetragrammaton when discussing these names and terms. So you understand they really all refer to the same thing: the Hebrew God.


reply posted on 29-11-2009 @ 08:23 AM by oliveoil
reply to post by troubleshooter



LORD is always a translation of Yehovah meaning: Jehovah = "the existing One"It was the proper name of the one true God


There is no such word as JEHOVAH. It is a fake name.

The true name would be Yahweh taken from Y H W H.

please get your facts straight before you post.


reply posted on 29-11-2009 @ 09:18 AM by MagoSA
reply to post by oliveoil



One born every minute... sigh.

In the KJV, Yahweh (the anglicised version of YHWH) was copied and translated from the Hebraic and Aramaic, the greeks wrote Adonai and Elohim as the translated names for YHWH, and when translated into English by King James I, was capitalized to designate its stand in for YHWH.

In reference to Jesus, its used in its titular form, which is with one capital letter.


reply posted on 29-11-2009 @ 09:32 AM by oliveoil
Originally posted by MagoSA
reply to
post by oliveoil



One born every minute... sigh.

In the KJV, Yahweh (the anglicised version of YHWH) was copied and translated from the Hebraic and Aramaic, the greeks wrote Adonai and Elohim as the translated names for YHWH, and when translated into English by King James I, was capitalized to designate its stand in for YHWH.

In reference to Jesus, its used in its titular form, which is with one capital letter.


I really don't understand who you are disagreeing with, Me or the guy above me. If you are referring to me, I am perfectly aware of how we get GODs name and why the Bible uses CAPS when referring to different LORDS.
And yes, JEHOVAH is a FAKE word period.


reply posted on 29-11-2009 @ 09:43 AM by MagoSA
reply to post by oliveoil



Jevohah is an corruption of the latin Iejovah. That one starts with an I.

Still not fake.


reply posted on 29-11-2009 @ 10:18 AM by oliveoil
reply to post by MagoSA



I don't normally quote other ATS members but this guy is Hebrew-Greek scholar and knows way more than the average guy.

Originally posted by Sigismundus
Hi Oliveil--

Well, when speaking about the clan god of the bible (a post exilic primarily Yahwistic set of documents), I see no harm in referring to that specific clan god of the Jews as 'YHWH' .

Jehovah was a fake construct of JHVH as consonants and the VOWELS of EDONAI ('my Lord')

JHVH - consonants of YHWH
eoa - vowels of edonai

J + e + H + o + V + a+ H = a composite (=fake) name.

which was used to remind the Russian Masoretes in the 10th centiry AD (who added the vowels to their own un-vowelled-unpointed version of the hebrew scriptures which came to be known as the Masoretic text i.e. the MT) to speak outoud the pronunciation: EDONAI : whenever they came across YHWH in their pointed Text, since YHWH as Yahweh was forbidden for all except the High priest ever to utter outloud (to protect YHWH being used in magic spells after the exile, apparently)

I don't think the Jehovah-witnesses understand the hisory of the name. The Greek LXX Septuaginta (which used vowells in the Greek version of BCE 200) pronounced the name something like 'Yahwuh' owing to the fact that Greek letters do not always conform neatly to Hebrew letters or pronunciation.

It's the problem inherent in translating any one language into another accurately---one of the thorniest issues for Christians whose alleged founder spoke 1st century Galilean Aramaic, but whose words placed into his mouth in the canonical council approved 4 Greek gospels are 1st century Koine Greek---one full step removed from the original language and historical setting, alas !

[edit on 19-11-2009 by Sigismundus]



reply posted on 29-11-2009 @ 10:19 AM by oliveoil
Continued,

Originally posted by Sigismundus
Hi Oliveil--

There were VERY good reasons why 17th century Protestants in England decided against naming the clan god of Israel as YAHWEH.

For one thing, before we get going, the KJV King James Bible (which was re-printed with hundreds of print-corrections more than 4 times in the first few years of its existence) ONLY used the pointed vowelled Masoretic text of the OT as a source for their English translation bible text for the OT (they did not use the RomanC Catholic version of the OT called the Latin Vulgate which was a translation of the Greek OT LXX Septaginta by Jerome, which is based on the LXX-Hebrew Unpointed Vorglag underlay (which was found among the Dead Sea Scrolls at Qumran in 1946) which is at least 1,000 years older than the Leningrad Codex of the MT) and this Masoretic text is the version that uses the vowels of EDONAI underneath their Hebrew unpointed unvowelled consonantal versioin of their text.

The LXX greek for Exodus chapter three clearly says 'Yahwuh' not Jehovah as the Masoretic symbolically-fake pointing of YHWH has it.

Most of the time, the KJV opts to read:

THE LORD every time it comes to a passage using YHWH

And the KJV used 'GOD' every time it comes to a passage using the word ELOHIM.

When it came to a passsage that read 'YHWH ELOHIM' in the Hebrew MT (for example in the D strand of the Torah, or in the book of Jeremiah, which were written by the school of Baruch in c. BCE 530) the KJV panel translated the phrase in 17th century English as THE LORD GOD.

But THE LORD GOD never occurs in the hebrew text: It says: YHWH-ELOHIM.

All of these words (LORD, GOD, THE LORD GOD) are fake constructs when brought into 17th century English - fake but of course useful for the Protestant clergy who NEVER EVER wanted ANY of their flock to name the actual name of the god of Israel other than to call him LORD or GOD (as if there was ONLY ONE !)

Kind of sneaky of them NOT to explain to their poor ignorant flocks (of sheeple) that they were worshipping a middle eastern clan god with a funny name (Yah-weh)..so using THE LORD and GOD and THE LORD GOD sounded soooooo Universal and appealing (by comparison) ...don't forget they also depended on large numbers of believers (as did the state who wanted more sheeple NOT to question anything about the status quo if possible) who were unquestioningly filling their offering plates every week (along with state subsidies, of course !) to keep them in business just like the Catholic Bank...er Church... does to this day.

Well...at least the Protestant clergy allowed their own congregations to read the Bible in the English of their day, unlike the Roman Catholic clergy who did not allow THEIR parishoners to read the Bible in English or any modern language translations for themselves etc.)

Clear as mud?


I would have put it in my own words however,today is not the best day for my R.A.

[edit on 29-11-2009 by oliveoil]



reply posted on 29-11-2009 @ 10:25 AM by AshleyD
reply to post by Alethea



When 'LORD' is in all caps, that is just to make it clear to the English reader that the word is a translation of YHWH from the original Hebrew. When it is spelled as 'Lord' or 'lord,' it is simply a noun denoting status.

That's it.

[edit on 11/29/2009 by AshleyD]


reply posted on 29-11-2009 @ 10:50 AM by AshleyD
reply to post by oliveoil





(LORD) Its used to distinguish it from the word adonai (lord) not YHWH.YHWH is the Hebrew verb that means "to be" not lord.


Yes and no:

Lord - title, spoken in place of Yahweh in Jewish display of reverence


www.biblestudytools.com...

That link will take you to 'Adonay and will also mention YHWH in the definitions.




reply posted on 29-11-2009 @ 11:16 AM by AshleyD
reply to post by oliveoil



No worries. I also just realized I had no 'reply to' tag in my post above. Since my post came after yours, it looked like I was posting a comment to your post above but it was actually in answer to the OP. So I edited my above post to add a reply tag to the OP.
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