Was Jesus a Jewish Religious Bigot? Can someone with working knowledge of scripture answer? No biased answers...just facts.

The most harden and reveling position Jesus takes in this context is over his love and protection of the exclusive truth of the faith of Israel and its God. As hinted at else where in the Gospels, we see a dark side of Jesus in his cruel and venomous attack on a mother simply requesting his mercy for her possessed daughter (Matt. 15: 21-28)... The Gospel of Mark simply calls her “…a Gentile, of Syrophoenician race.” (Mark 7:26). However, when this verse is redacted in Matt. 15:22, she is call “…a Canaanite woman…” a term used in the time of Jesus equivalent today to an African American being called a “N****r”. Here Jesus is referenced to the “New Moses” (a theme used by the writer of Matthew) in confronting a non-Jew (Israelite) or a pagan Canaanite woman. His disciples know Jesus’ position on Gentiles; his basic hate for them, but are unable to get rid of her and are forced to file their complaint with Jesus himself who has, up until now ignored her. Now the Jewish Jesus must confront someone his faith and history requires him to hate. Matthew’s Jesus has some cruel fun with her and her sick daughter: “It is not proper to take the children’s bread and throw it to the dogs.” Dogs (κυναριοις) is Jesus’ Jewish hate term for Gentiles ( Matt. 7:6 “κυσιν “). Finally Jesus heals her daughter, but only after he extracts from her a verbal confirmation before his disciples and the people watching that only the Jews have God’s blessing and she and her daughter are indeed dogs (notice the play on words here θυγατηρ (young girl) with κυναριοις (small dog)).

Although Jesus warns against adults harming any Jewish child’s faith (Matt. 18:1-6), he has (as expressed in the above pericope) no concern about Gentile children since any faith they may have is non-Jewish and pagan. In short, for Jesus, Gentile dogs have no true faith.

read the passage, it seems to me he cared more about faith and belief than religious doctrine.

This is where your assumption breaks down.

You say," However, when this verse is redacted in Matt. 15:22, she is call “…a Canaanite woman…” a term used in the time of Jesus equivalent today to an African American being called a “N****r”."

This statement is simply untrue. Where do you get this silly idea from?

Search the Old testament, you will find this group of people are commonly called Canaanites because they came from the Land of Canaan. It has nothing to do with being used as a slang term.

The term Syrophoenician means half Phoenician and half Syrian.

The same story was written by two different authors each using their own descriptive worlds for the race of people. It has nothing to do with any bigotry.

It's just like the difference between speaking of an American as either an American or an English speaking person. Similar, but different.


[edit on 25-11-2009 by JohnPhoenix]

With the exception of your misinterpretation of the term Canaanite, you are correct in his view of the lady, and her daughter. This is because while the creators of the Jesus character wanted to be able to appeal to a wide range of people, they were still Jewish, and in passages like this it shows very well that they were prejudice in their thinking.

Originally posted by Majiq
With the exception of your misinterpretation of the term Canaanite, you are correct in his view of the lady, and her daughter. This is because while the creators of the Jesus character wanted to be able to appeal to a wide range of people, they were still Jewish, and in passages like this it shows very well that they were prejudice in their thinking.

In a way, your statement seems correct. People need to understand, Jesus was a Jew, and the Jewish Messiah. It was not until later with the out pouring of the Holy Spirit unto Jews and gentiles alike in the book of Acts did the apostles know and understand this gift of salvation through Jesus was for the gentiles also.

Previously in the Old Testament they had been taught they were Gods "Chosen People" and guarded their knowledge of their god jealously - it was not for the gentiles. This was very ingrained into them as a people. God even told his people at this time not to marry or enter into contracts with people of other beliefs.

Originally posted by Majiq
With the exception of your misinterpretation of the term Canaanite, you are correct in his view of the lady, and her daughter. This is because while the creators of the Jesus character wanted to be able to appeal to a wide range of people, they were still Jewish, and in passages like this it shows very well that they were prejudice in their thinking.

Exactly! I can not, for the life of me, worship some guy that called himself the savior 2k years ago...jew or not. He was a man that studied magic and was for the Israelites.

So, if Jesus was a bigot then the Jewish god is a bigot. This would mean the Jewish god is NOT the true creator god but one of 'those' lesser gods that people of that time and place worshiped as a god. Was the god of the Jews then one of the Annunaki or something similar???

The Jewish god, in the commandments, admits there ARE other gods...least that is what primative man would of thought of them as being.

The organized religions are holding us back from the truth and our own human potential!

[edit on 26-11-2009 by Hemlocks]

[edit on 26-11-2009 by Hemlocks]

[edit on 26-11-2009 by Hemlocks]

[edit on 26-11-2009 by Hemlocks]

It's kind of like Michael Jackson fans. They worship him and when evidence comes to light of pedophilia and drug abuse it is completely ignored, in fact the popularity increases. Some sort of mental sickness/phenomena with folks who worship anything.

Originally posted by Hemlocks


Although Jesus warns against adults harming any Jewish child’s faith (Matt. 18:1-6), he has (as expressed in the above pericope) no concern about Gentile children since any faith they may have is non-Jewish and pagan. In short, for Jesus, Gentile dogs have no true faith.

Dear Hemlock, you are either a fool or a demon or both...

You take an innocent cultural interaction and an act of faith and turn it into an evil thing.

It was because of this womens faith that thousands were healed and fed over the three following days...
...yet you conveniently ignore this to present your pathetic vingerete.

Consider yourself rebuked...your time is soon. (Math 8:29).



[edit on 26/11/09 by troubleshooter]

Matthew 10:5-6 5 These twelve Jesus sent forth, and commanded them, saying, Go not into the way of the Gentiles, and into any city of the Samaritans enter ye not: 6 But go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel

Please, do not try and tell me that the Europeans are one of these lost sheep of Israel or the 13th tride nonsense.

Originally posted by Hemlocks
Was Jesus a Jewish Religious Bigot? Can someone with working knowledge of scripture answer? No biased answers...just facts.

The most harden and reveling position Jesus takes in this context is over his love and protection of the exclusive truth of the faith of Israel and its God. As hinted at else where in the Gospels, we see a dark side of Jesus in his cruel and venomous attack on a mother simply requesting his mercy for her possessed daughter (Matt. 15: 21-28)... The Gospel of Mark simply calls her “…a Gentile, of Syrophoenician race.” (Mark 7:26). However, when this verse is redacted in Matt. 15:22, she is call “…a Canaanite woman…” a term used in the time of Jesus equivalent today to an African American being called a “N****r”. Here Jesus is referenced to the “New Moses” (a theme used by the writer of Matthew) in confronting a non-Jew (Israelite) or a pagan Canaanite woman. His disciples know Jesus’ position on Gentiles; his basic hate for them, but are unable to get rid of her and are forced to file their complaint with Jesus himself who has, up until now ignored her. Now the Jewish Jesus must confront someone his faith and history requires him to hate. Matthew’s Jesus has some cruel fun with her and her sick daughter: “It is not proper to take the children’s bread and throw it to the dogs.” Dogs (κυναριοις) is Jesus’ Jewish hate term for Gentiles ( Matt. 7:6 “κυσιν “). Finally Jesus heals her daughter, but only after he extracts from her a verbal confirmation before his disciples and the people watching that only the Jews have God’s blessing and she and her daughter are indeed dogs (notice the play on words here θυγατηρ (young girl) with κυναριοις (small dog)).

Although Jesus warns against adults harming any Jewish child’s faith (Matt. 18:1-6), he has (as expressed in the above pericope) no concern about Gentile children since any faith they may have is non-Jewish and pagan. In short, for Jesus, Gentile dogs have no true faith.

Who invited the trolls out to play?

You read the passage and knew better than the junk you typed here. Shame on you for wanting to pick a fight.

Why aren't their -negative- stars you can give to somebody?

Originally posted by Hemlocks

Originally posted by Majiq
With the exception of your misinterpretation of the term Canaanite, you are correct in his view of the lady, and her daughter. This is because while the creators of the Jesus character wanted to be able to appeal to a wide range of people, they were still Jewish, and in passages like this it shows very well that they were prejudice in their thinking.

Exactly! I can not, for the life of me, worship some guy that called himself the savior 2k years ago...jew or not. He was a man that studied magic and was for the Israelites.

Well that is if you believe that he was a man at all. My opinion is that Jesus was just the Jewish counterpart to Krishna, Mithra, and many other popular God-men at the time.