the role of women

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posted on Apr, 27 2003 @ 01:20 AM
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Originally posted by helen670

Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; ... And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for women to speak in the church" (1 Cor. 14, 33-35).
"There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus" (Gal. 3, 28).



don't these two quotes contradict each other?!?!?

I'm just a little
on what your were trying to say




posted on Apr, 27 2003 @ 02:46 AM
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sorry .i wasn't here.......

IN church...........meaning that only men are to be ordained as Priest..........woman should not speak............

There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus" (Gal. 3, 28).

meaning in equality.............God regards women of equal status on their faith........

i have also provided a link to this question..........hope it helps.........

[Edited on 27-4-2003 by helen670]



posted on Apr, 27 2003 @ 12:11 PM
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Be warn, males !



posted on Apr, 27 2003 @ 12:36 PM
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Originally posted by Nans DESMICHELS
Be warn, males !


Dang why are you so anti-men. Di a guy break your heart



posted on Apr, 27 2003 @ 12:40 PM
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Originally posted by helen670

Now ,in Church, meaning men can only become a Priest.....but, a woman and a man is equal in Goodness......


"For God is not the author of confusion,
but of peace, as in all churches of the saints.


This is an example on typical Roman Catholic hypocricy. How can a woman not be a priest when women can become saints? Isn't the sainst the first to be ressurrected, and thereby the ones who shall rule with Christ as priests during the Millennium? If women can be saints, they can be priests.


Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; ... And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for women to speak in the church" (1 Cor. 14, 33-35).

Have the God-inspired words of the chief Apostle become obsolete, or show disdain of women, as maintained by the vain champions for equal rights?! Did not the same Apostle say that : "There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus" (Gal. 3, 28). With these amazingly simple words the Apostle refutes not only the wearisome squabbling regarding freedom, nationality and chosenness, but also explains the essence of true equality of men and women.


Chief Apostle? This word is mentioned once in the Bible, and then it's used as a term of abuse. No apostle is above another. Paul is the first gentile apostle and the one to replace Judas the deceiver. If any apostle is to mentioned above the other, it would be Peter who was given the keys of Heaven and given authority to judge in good and evil, to bind and loose as he saw fit. But it would be wrong to place one apostle before another.


The Apostle's scrupulous attitude to women's conduct in church is caused not only by the well-known transgression of our original mother Eve who had plunged Adam, and subsequently the entire mankind, into the original sin, but also by specific observations of confusion caused, apparently, by women (1 Tim. 2, 14). The Apostle could not but take into account that by their nature women are more exposed to all kinds of influences, including deeply sinful and pernicious ones. This phenomenon forms the predominant topic of the entire world fiction; theatre and cinema productions also address this theme.

ecumenizm.tripod.com...


Where have you got all this from? So women are more stupid than men is that what you say? "more exposed to all kinds of influences" does woman have different eyes than men? Has women got different ears than men? Women are exposed to just the same things men are. We are different, but equal.

When Jesus visits Marta and Mary Magdalen, Mary sits down with him to learn in the same manner the men who followed him used to do. When Marta says to the Lord that he must tell Mary to help her with her duties as a woman, Jesus shows that she should be allowed to do what she wants, for she chooses the good part. If a woman wants to become a priest and thereby choose the good part, why stop her? Hypothetically: If Mother Mary had come to a Catholic Church, would you rather have her to keep her mouth shut, or would you've liked to hear what she had to say?

Blessings,
Mikromarius



posted on Apr, 27 2003 @ 12:53 PM
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what does it mean when the scripture says that if a woman makes herself as a man she will be worthy of the kingdom?

the old philosophers stated that woman was not worthy because of their lack of abillity of logical thinking..

could this mean that Jesus in fact spoke of a differense between man and woman?




posted on Apr, 27 2003 @ 12:54 PM
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Originally posted by helen670
sorry .i wasn't here.......

IN church...........meaning that only men are to be ordained as Priest..........woman should not speak............

There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus" (Gal. 3, 28).

meaning in equality.............God regards women of equal status on their faith........

i have also provided a link to this question..........hope it helps.........

[Edited on 27-4-2003 by helen670]


If we were to follow the folly of Paul as to whom who is allowed to make speech in the congregation, Anna the prophet, wouldn't have been allowed to do the following: Luke 2:38 "And she coming in that instant gave thanks likewise unto the Lord, and spake of him to all them that looked for redemption in Jerusalem".

I'm sorry that I earlier said that she was the first person to recognise Jesus as the Messiah. Simeon was the first, Anna was the second...

Blessings,
Mikromarius



posted on Apr, 27 2003 @ 01:52 PM
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Originally posted by Lilly
what does it mean when the scripture says that if a woman makes herself as a man she will be worthy of the kingdom?

the old philosophers stated that woman was not worthy because of their lack of abillity of logical thinking..

could this mean that Jesus in fact spoke of a differense between man and woman?



I think the story about Jesus when he's at Martha and Mary's house explains this perfectly. While Martha acts like a woman, doing what is expected from a woman, Magdalen sits down before the Rabbi and listens like a man would be expected to do. Also, when a woman and a man marry, they become one. Paul says that the head of the woman is her husbond, while the head of the man is somewhat Christ, and Christ's head is God. This is diffusion and reflects Paul's strange view on womankind. To me it's no wonder he was never married.

Besides what you mention here, about women being like men. Isn't that written in one of the apocrypha? I believe it's from the gospel of Mary Magdalen, isn't it? Or is it also written in the Catholic canon?

Blessings,
Mikroma



posted on Apr, 27 2003 @ 02:02 PM
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Originally posted by mikromarius

Originally posted by Lilly
what does it mean when the scripture says that if a woman makes herself as a man she will be worthy of the kingdom?

the old philosophers stated that woman was not worthy because of their lack of abillity of logical thinking..

could this mean that Jesus in fact spoke of a differense between man and woman?



I think the story about Jesus when he's at Martha and Mary's house explains this perfectly. While Martha acts like a woman, doing what is expected from a woman, Magdalen sits down before the Rabbi and listens like a man would be expected to do. Also, when a woman and a man marry, they become one. Paul says that the head of the woman is her husbond, while the head of the man is somewhat Christ, and Christ's head is God. This is diffusion and reflects Paul's strange view on womankind. To me it's no wonder he was never married.

Besides what you mention here, about women being like men. Isn't that written in one of the apocrypha? I believe it's from the gospel of Mary Magdalen, isn't it? Or is it also written in the Catholic canon?

Blessings,
Mikroma


i belive it is from the gospel of thomas, the last words of the gospel..

paul lived afther jesus, so maybe that is why he could not undarstand? because he had not the guidance og the lord?

but you mean that the answer to my question is that if also a woman seek enligthenment she is worthy?

do you know if it is right that one the first word in the islam book is "Learn" or "study"?



posted on Apr, 27 2003 @ 09:47 PM
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Jesus Christ was a Male..........i have no objection to that.....

Because of Eve's dissobedience to God's commandement in the ''Garden of Eden''''Jesus Christ took flesh and became Man too redeen mankind......Ti live a life like He did...........through His teachings and His way's, we are to carry the Cross.......the burdens that life offers to those that want to live a life of goodness........
Take for example,today's lifestyle............if you dont '''fit in '' with today's fashion or how people want you or expect you to live, you are put in a ''difficult position'''to behave the way that society wants you, but of course we do have a ''free will ''' and need not follow others around like ''lost sheep'''

I dont think this is degrading to women ........

Also , Man and Woman is different.......in many ways......(you mean i have to explain this???





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