posted on May, 17 2004 @ 08:51 AM
If BP stated this, it is being disingenuous. This is probably a case of "lying with statistics". You may be able to take the total barrels of gas
used in the U.S. and the total barrels of gas produced in the U.S. and come up with the following:
U.S. barrels of gas produced/U.S. barrels of gas used = 60%, BUT, that does not mean that 60% of the barrels of gas used actually DID originate from
oil out of a U.S. oilwell.
See, you've got your tank farms and they just hold gas from all over the place and various companies. The tank doesn't know the difference between
Saudi gas and U.S. gas, neither do the refineries...they just take it in the oil from multpile sources and spit the refined products out. By the way,
we're refining a lot of imported oil, so here's another place BP's statement can be misleading...are they saying we're refining 60% of the gas we
use? Okay, fine, that doesn't disconnect us from the fact the oil is coming from the mid-east.
If you want to buy made-in America gas from produced-in America oil...buy Conoco...and you'll still get mid-east oil-originated gas...but it won't
be Conoco's fault, it will be the mixing of the product at the tank farms...but you'll be supporting a pure American-oil company.
[Edited on 5-17-2004 by Valhall]