Hell is a Conspircacy Theory- Proved False, From The Bible, page 4
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reply posted on 22-4-2009 @ 12:03 PM by Shadow14
Originally posted by cosmicpixie
I don't know why so many people STILL refuse to see that Satan was an invention of the bible writers based on the older Sumerian battle between Enlil (god) and Enki (god's adversary)

The Myth of Satan

The Origin of The Devil

Misunderstanding who Lucifer actually was

Or to view the evidence suggesting reincarnation WAS supported in the Bible


Reincarnation in the Bible


The above looks into the NT , but there is an even greater wealth of evidence within the books that were banned from making it into the final edit.

You are all going around in circles.


Satan wants you to believe he is an invention of the bible don't you see that was his greatest deception of man to convince the world he does not exist, so he can rule the world without opposition.


reply posted on 22-4-2009 @ 12:14 PM by Blue_Jay33
reply to post by Burginthorn



What you experienced is called a "Demon Attack" not hell, and the reason was because your roommate opened a channel to them with all his stuff on witchcraft. Not smart, not smart at all, they are real.

One person who became a christian told me this, "before I wasn't a christian, but then I saw my step-mother involved with the demons, because she was into witchcraft and all that stuff, many times too. All kinds of bizarre & scary stuff".

In the end he realized if they (Demons) actually exist, then God and the angels must exist as the counter to them. It was this that convinced him to become a christian, and he never has had issues with them again, because his father kicked the step mom out because she was doing this.



reply posted on 22-4-2009 @ 12:18 PM by Avenginggecko
reply to post by one_man24



Ah, yes. Well that is a parable, and as such, when we read parables, we are not to take them literally, but find the Truth within the symbolic story. The reason Christ spoke in parables was to educate the ignorant and the gentiles who learned of Him. We should not take his parables as a literal and factual account of reality.

Matthew 13
3 Then He spoke many things to them in parables . . . 10 And the disciples came and said to Him, "Why do You speak to them in parables?" 11 He answered and said to them, "Because it has been given to you to know the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven, but to them it has not been given. 12 For whoever has, to him more will be given, and he will have abundance; but whoever does not have, even what he has will be taken away from him. 13 Therefore I speak to them in parables, because seeing they do not see, and hearing they do not hear, nor do they understand.


The rich man's suffering was symbolic of his poor choices in life because he neglected his neighbor. He nor his brothers will know enlightenment because they don't listen to the words of the prophets. Their tongues will not be quenched (they will not be satisfied in spirit), and their flesh will be in torment (they will not know paradise) because of their actions.

Hope that helps!

[edit on 22-4-2009 by Avenginggecko]


reply posted on 22-4-2009 @ 12:19 PM by one_man24
reply to post by Blue_Jay33



OP, You still have not addressed the passage from Luke Chapter 16 that I posted earlier. I am curious to know what your take is on these verses. How does this fit in with your idea of the aferlife?

[edit on 22-4-2009 by one_man24]


reply posted on 22-4-2009 @ 12:26 PM by Burginthorn
reply to post by Blue_Jay33



What I experienced was the outer darkness.

Matt 25: 14-30


[edit on 22-4-2009 by Burginthorn]


reply posted on 22-4-2009 @ 12:31 PM by cosmicpixie
reply to post by Shadow14



Funny, last night as I was reading about how the biography of Jesus was a rip off amalgammation of a dozen other gods before him who also were called the son of god, were born to a virgin, died on the cross etc...I read also about how when these curious similarities were pointed out in olden times the counter argument went something like, " Well the devil deliberately created those gods before the real one came along so that the people would not realize who WAS the real one when he really DID come".

Eh?


I bet you didn't even READ those articles, did you .

Alas, I shall find another thread to peruse , I can see I waste my time on this one. Enjoy your debate.


reply posted on 22-4-2009 @ 12:47 PM by one_man24
reply to post by Avenginggecko



Actually, Jesus spoke in parables so that only those who were meant to have a deep understanding of God's knowledge would get it. This is from Luke, a parallel of your matthew quote.

When he said this, he called out, “He who has ears to hear, let him hear.”

9 His disciples asked him what this parable meant. 10 He said, “The knowledge of the secrets of the kingdom of God has been given to you, but to others I speak in parables, so that,

“ ‘though seeing, they may not see;

though hearing, they may not understand.

These words were not describing the peril of the rich man, but the peril of the Jews at that time, and the perils of being of this world.
To quote from another source:

"Our Lord Jesus understood that truth is not sweet music to all ears. Simply put, there are those who have neither interest nor regard in the deep things of God. So why, then, did He speak in parables? To those with a genuine hunger for God, the parable is both an effective and memorable vehicle for the conveyance of divine truths. Our Lord’s parables contain great volumes of truth in very few words—and His parables, rich in imagery, are not easily forgotten. So, then, the parable is a blessing to those with willing ears. But to those with dull hearts and ears that are slow to hear, the parable is also an instrument of both judgment and mercy."

www.gotquestions.org...

This story was used to provide a picture of what your afterlife will be like if you choose to deny the gift God has given. Parables always contain a core truth, even if it is just a story. The core truth here is that if the rich man had heeded Moses and the Prophets, and had loved the Lord and His ways, he would have loved his neighbour as himself and comforted Lazarus when he needed it, even though he was a diseased ridden beggar, and consequently would have been given eternal comfort. The fact that the rich man actually asked for the beggar Lazarus to dip his diseased and disgusting finger into water and wet his tongue with it actually paints a picture of how terrible the rich man's torment was.



reply posted on 22-4-2009 @ 12:50 PM by Blue_Jay33
reply to post by one_man24



By what Jesus said about the rich man and Lazarus, did Jesus teach torment of the wicked after death?



Is the account, at Luke 16:19-31, literal or merely an illustration of something else? The Jerusalem Bible, in a footnote, acknowledges that it is a “parable in story form without reference to any historical personage.” If taken literally, it would mean that those enjoying divine favor could all fit at the bosom of one man, Abraham; that the water on one’s fingertip would not be evaporated by the fire of Hades; that a mere drop of water would bring relief to one suffering there. Does that sound reasonable to you? If it were literal, it would conflict with other parts of the Bible. If the Bible were thus contradictory, would a lover of truth use it as a basis for his faith? But the Bible does not contradict itself.

What does the parable mean? The “rich man” represented the Pharisees. (See verse 14.) The beggar Lazarus represented the common Jewish people who were despised by the Pharisees but who repented and became followers of Jesus. (See Luke 18:11; John 7:49; Matthew 21:31, 32.) Their deaths were also symbolic, representing a change in circumstances. Thus, the formerly despised ones came into a position of divine favor, and the formerly seemingly favored ones were rejected by God, while being tormented by the judgment messages delivered by the ones whom they had despised.—Acts 5:33; 7:54.


Does the Bible indicate whether the dead experience pain?



Eccl. 9:5, 10: “The living are conscious that they will die; but as for the dead, they are conscious of nothing at all . . . All that your hand finds to do, do with your very power, for there is no work nor devising nor knowledge nor wisdom in Sheol,* the place to which you are going.” (If they are conscious of nothing, they obviously feel no pain.) (*“Sheol,” AS, RS, NE, JB; “the grave,” KJ, Kx; “hell,” Dy; “the world of the dead,” TEV.)
Ps. 146:4: “His spirit goes out, he goes back to his ground; in that day his thoughts* do perish.” (*“Thoughts,” KJ, 145:4 in Dy; “schemes,” JB; “plans,” RS, TEV.)

Does the Bible indicate that the soul survives the death of the body?
Ezek. 18:4: “The soul* that is sinning—it itself will die.” (*“Soul,” KJ, Dy, RS, NE, Kx; “the man,” JB; “the person,” TEV.)

“The concept of ‘soul,’ meaning a purely spiritual, immaterial reality, separate from the ‘body,’ . . . does not exist in the Bible.”—La Parole de Dieu (Paris, 1960), Georges Auzou, professor of Sacred Scripture, Rouen Seminary, France, p. 128.

“Although the Hebrew word nephesh [in the Hebrew Scriptures] is frequently translated as ‘soul,’ it would be inaccurate to read into it a Greek meaning. Nephesh . . . is never conceived of as operating separately from the body. In the New Testament the Greek word psyche is often translated as ‘soul’ but again should not be readily understood to have the meaning the word had for the Greek philosophers. It usually means ‘life,’ or ‘vitality,’ or, at times, ‘the self.’”—The Encyclopedia Americana (1977), Vol. 25, p. 236.


Why is there confusion as to what the Bible says about hell?



“Much confusion and misunderstanding has been caused through the early translators of the Bible persistently rendering the Hebrew Sheol and the Greek Hades and Gehenna by the word hell. The simple transliteration of these words by the translators of the revised editions of the Bible has not sufficed to appreciably clear up this confusion and misconception.”—The Encyclopedia Americana (1942), Vol. XIV, p. 81.

Translators have allowed their personal beliefs to color their work instead of being consistent in their rendering of the original-language words. For example: (1) The King James Version rendered she’ohl′ as “hell,” “the grave,” and “the pit”; hai′des is therein rendered both “hell” and “grave”; ge′en·na is also translated “hell.”
(2) Today’s English Version transliterates hai′des as “Hades” and also renders it as “hell” and “the world of the dead.” But besides rendering “hell” from hai′des it uses that same translation for ge′en·na.
(3) The Jerusalem Bible transliterates hai′des six times, but in other passages it translates it as “hell” and as “the underworld.” It also translates ge′en·na as “hell,” as it does hai′des in two instances. Thus the exact meanings of the original-language words have been obscured.


I have done the research for you guys, an accumulation of years of study. Continue to believe what you always have, or perhaps now is the time, to at least try to imitate the 1st century Christians like those in Berea who Paul talked to. Any christian who is serious about their personal spirituality should.

Acts 17 verse 11
GOD'S WORD® Translation (©1995)
The people of Berea were more open-minded than the people of Thessalonica. They were very willing to receive God's message, and every day they carefully examined the Scriptures to see if what Paul said was true.

The Berean Christians in the 1st century are an awesome example for 21st century Christians to follow, and I try to do so.


reply posted on 22-4-2009 @ 01:12 PM by Avenginggecko
reply to post by one_man24




That's right, parables do contain a core truth, and I believe we'll just have to agree that our sources and interpretations of the passages differ. I believe his parable was symbolic and Christ wasn't trying to show how the afterlife literally would be for those that sinned. The core truth to this parable seems to be that we need to heed the words of the all of the prophets in order to be saved and accepted by God...and anyone that does this can be saved.

According to the Bible, the old Prophets haven't been resurrected yet - they will be resurrected upon the first great resurrection. How could Lazarus fly in to Abraham's bosom if he hasn't been resurrected yet? How could Lazarus even be resurrected if Christ hadn't died yet for our sins? If heaven is supposed to be be eternal joy and perfection, how is it that those taken there could see and hear those being tormented in hell? Would you believe that you could live in eternal peace if you hear the screams and suffering of the damned?

Since parables are symbolic, I have to look deeper than simply labelling Lazarus the Jews and the rich man the gentiles. I actually believe it is reversed. The Jews were the ones whom feasted sumptuously every day, spiritually, because at the time they were the only people with the true religion. The gentiles had falsehoods and idolatry, which corrupted their bodies (temples) like sores. The Jews became self-righteous and began to glorify themselves and their blessings moreso than the true God who gave them.

Lazarus, meaning "one who is helped by God"...now on its surface it might seem obvious he means Jews, but who really was helped in the NT the most?

GALATIANS 3:6 . . . Abraham "believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness." 7 Therefore know that only those who are of faith are sons of Abraham. 8 And the Scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the Gentiles by faith, preached the gospel to Abraham beforehand, saying, "In you all the nations shall be blessed." 9 So then those who are of faith are blessed with believing Abraham.


So we see here another parallel with people being close to Abraham and I think it shows that this parable was about the spirit and not about actual torment. Lazarus was the gentile that was excluded from spiritual enlightenment, but who, through Abraham and the prophets, learned faith and mercy from God.

The rich man who dressed in purple robes never asked anything of pagan gods, they directly asked Abraham, which I believe shows that the rich man was in fact a Jew who couldn't understand why he had been condemned.



[edit on 22-4-2009 by Avenginggecko]


reply posted on 22-4-2009 @ 01:30 PM by teapot
Originally posted by Shadow14
Originally posted by spellbound
reply to
post by Welfhard



My theory - probably nuts, is that God did let Satan have the earth, that Jesus was the son of God, and that we are therefore living in Satan's kingdom, which is hell on earth.

Look around at all the evil and suffering in the world - Satan must be thrilled.


I beleive the same thing as u. You are correct God did let Satan live here after he was banished from Gods Kingdom but that will all change soon when he is banished from the earth and will no longer be able to deceive mankind.


No. There is no more hell on Earth than there is Heaven on Earth. What we get is a kind of mixture or balance of how the colour of each might sound when we smell it.


reply posted on 22-4-2009 @ 01:37 PM by Simplynoone
reply to post by Blue_Jay33




Even if we agreed that it was a parable ...that does not explain these passages .

Isa 66:24 And they shall go forth, and look upon the carcases of the men that have transgressed against me: for their worm shall not die, neither shall their fire be quenched; and they shall be an abhorring unto all flesh.

Mar 9:43 And if thy hand offend thee, cut it off: it is better for thee to enter into life maimed, than having two hands to go into hell, into the fire that never shall be quenched:
Mar 9:44 Where their worm dieth not, and the fire is not quenched.
Mar 9:45 And if thy foot offend thee, cut it off: it is better for thee to enter halt into life, than having two feet to be cast into hell, into the fire that never shall be quenched:
Mar 9:46 Where their worm dieth not, and the fire is not quenched.

Mar 9:48 Where their worm dieth not, and the fire is not quenched.


If it was not literal why does it mention having two hands to go into hell into the fire that never shall be quenched ...And the worm dieth not sounds alot like their bodies wont die either ..in other words they will still feel fleshly pain as well as emotional spiritual pain ...


reply posted on 22-4-2009 @ 01:39 PM by teapot
Originally posted by Blue_Jay33
reply to
post by Burginthorn



What you experienced is called a "Demon Attack" not hell, and the reason was because your roommate opened a channel to them with all his stuff on witchcraft. Not smart, not smart at all, they are real.



That's what I find interesting about Burginthorn testimony. His flat mate summoned legions but they weren't interested in him. Their attention was on the one who was silently praying.



reply posted on 22-4-2009 @ 01:43 PM by watchtheashes
reply to post by Simplynoone



Jesus is referring here to the "Second Death" that is death. This is the true death. Heaven is simply heaven. The lake of fire is for those who were wicked beyond saving and did not get saved. So they get to hang out with Satan, The Beast, and the false prophet in torment for eternity while the saved live out life as it should have been in the Garden of Eden in the Kingdom of Heaven on Earth. This is "everlasting life" not the lie that the Church sells of when we die we either go to heaven or hell. The dead simply are dead, much like a wall is not conscious. This is in the Bible, and those verses are earlier in this thread.
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