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The MOSAIC Law is abolished, we now have TWO commandments to follow instead of 619 of them. And the Lord told us which two commandments to follow in the New Covenant.
Originally posted by jmdewey60
reply to post by NOTurTypical
You seem to be pretty sure about that.
(Answer: Only then will the law be destroyed.)
And that is based on. . .what?
Why don't you go to your pastor and tell him flat out, "the Ten Commandments are destroyed and we no longer need to keep them".
Let me know how that works out.
Originally posted by Locoman8
reply to post by NOTurTypical
Let me be clear to you that the little argument about Exodus talking about the Israelites not leaving their dwelling places was the Israelites keeping the Sabbath before the Ten Commandments were given to Moses. The manner in which they were told to keep the Sabbath was to teach them to trust God and to realize how important the Sabbath was to Him. The actual law of the Sabbath written in Exodus 20 does not give limitation to being inside or outside. It only limits people to the city walls. You are not to do long travels on the Sabbath. As miriam said, Jesus and His apostles were in the fields picking grains on the Sabbath. He taught in the synagoges on the Sabbath because that's when the Jews worshipped. How do you explain that with your little theory?
So, now it's the law of Moses, then? You see no destiction here concerning God coming down on the Mountain and personaly speaking to the Israelites? (as was the Ten Commandments) There is all of a sudden no such thing as God's law?
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
. . .What is destroyed is the need for man TO FOLLOW THE LAW OF MOSES FOR JUSTIFICATION TO GOD.
We are NOT justified to God for salvation by following the LAW, it's by the life, blood, death, and resurrection of the Lord Jesus Christ. And HIM alone, period.
Man is no longer "justified" by the Law of Moses, but by faith in Jesus Christ and HIS righteousness for justification unto the Father.
Originally posted by miriam0566
grandma so neatly pointed out the contradiction. if jesus was uncreated, he couldnt be the "firstborn of all creation". firstborn of god? sure, but not of creation.
Did Jesus say the law would be destroyed?
Originally posted by NOTurTypical
And I'm "sure" of it because that is what Jesus said.
He never said the Law would never be destroyed... He said it would never be destroyed UNTIL IT BE FULFILLED.
He also said he came to "FULFILL IT".
For Pete's sake, read Romans!
Then in what way is he a son?
God the Son has always been.
reply to post by jmdewey60
Did Jesus say the law would be destroyed?
So the earthquakes and the appearing of Jesus as judge, to separate the sheep from the goats, all that has been fulfilled? We are now living in the wonderful direct kingship of Christ, in the New Jerusalem, and all pain has been forever removed?
You didn't learn anything from the pages explaining Hebraisms did you?
Originally posted by jmdewey60
reply to post by TangoVooDoo
Then in what way is he a son?
God the Son has always been.
Are you created? You are some body's son. Did you always exist? If so, you would not be the son of anybody, and on top of that, you would be God.
Well, no problem, right (?), Jesus is God, plain and simple. So why all the pretense? What is all this son business?
Jesus is not God. God is God. The Son came from the Father, who happens to be God. Everything Christ has and everything Christ is, was given to him by God. So he is a creature of God, but completely unique in that he has not just one attribute of God, but all the attributes of God and every power of God at his disposal.
There exist in the Hebrew language numerous idiomatic terms that don't translate easily to more widely used languages. To the extent those broader cultures rely for cultural meaning on Hebrew-language-based scriptures, those idioms sometimes prove puzzling.
Originally posted by TangoVooDoo
In John we read that Jesus is the Word, the Word was not only with God but was God, therefore God the Son (Jesus, Yeshua, Yesoos) has always been. In other words God the Son is Eternal.
The flesh aspect of God the Son was created, the part of Him that suffered, was crucified and killed was that which was “born of a virgin”. The Spirit of Jesus was never born, did not die nor was it ever separated from God the Father.
God the Father shares His Glory with no one for He alone is God yet Jesus says this:
“And now, Father, glorify me at your side with the glory I had with you before the world was” – John 17:5
Jesus is God incarnate therefore He was never created but has always been, only the flesh of Jesus was created.
You may be overlooking the fact that Jesus was around for a while after the resurrection.
So naturally, what do you think happened at the moment He died thus fulfilling the Law in it's entirety with His death penalty for sin?
According to my reading of the New Testament, one makes the sacrifice of Jesus of no affect by continuing to sin.
If you want to live as if the new covenant is of none effect, then you're also by default saying that the life and death of Christ is also of none effect.
Earlier you were saying that "first born" was a Hebraism.
When the bible says certain people are the "sons of Baalam" is it saying "Baalam created them", or "Balaam is their father"?
Okay, then we can just erase Hebrews 8:12-13 out of the Bible. Since you claim it's a lie.
Originally posted by jmdewey60
reply to post by NOTurTypical
You may be overlooking the fact that Jesus was around for a while after the resurrection.
So naturally, what do you think happened at the moment He died thus fulfilling the Law in it's entirety with His death penalty for sin?
He had ample opportunity to declare the law null and void to his disciples, but strangely (according to your account) did not.
What did Jesus do. He gave the great commission, to go out and baptise. Why would there be a baptism of repentance if there was nothing to repent of, since there was no longer a law?
Originally posted by jmdewey60
reply to post by NOTurTypical
Earlier you were saying that "first born" was a Hebraism.
Now you are saying "son" is also a Hebraism.
And you seem to be implying that the whole bible is one big Hebraism.
I think you have thoroughly diluted your argument to the point that it is completely meaningless.
Originally posted by miriam0566
john 1:1 says no such thing. it specifically says that the word was WITH god. someone cannot be WITH someone and BE that same someone at the same time.
the correct grammatical translation is "the word was A god"
in which case, all it proves is that jesus was there at the beginning of creation, not that he's uncreated
In English the subject and predicate nominative are distinguished by word order(the subject comes first). Not so in Greek. Since word order in Greek is quite flexible and is used for emphases rather than for strict grammatical function, other means are used to distinguish subject from predicate nominative. For example, if one of the two nouns has the definite article, it is the subject...When a predicate nominative is thrown in front of the verb, by virtue of word order it takes on emphasis.
A good illustration of this is John 1:1c...We know that 'the Word' is the subject because it has the definite article, and we translate it accordingly: 'and the Word was God.'...why was theos thrown forward?...why does it lack the article? In brief, its emphatic position stresses its essence or quality: 'What God was, the Word was" is how one translation brings out its force. Its lack of a definite article keeps us from identifying the person of the Word...with the person of 'God'(The Father).
That is to say, the word order tells us that Jesus Christ has all the divine attributes that the Father has; lack of the article tells us that Jesus Christ is not the Father. John's wording here is beautifully compact! It is, in fact, one of the most elegantly terse theological statements one could ever find. As Martin Luther said, the lack of an article is against Sabellianism; the word order is against Arianism.
Originally posted by miriam0566
Isaiah 48:[11] For mine own sake, even for mine own sake, will I do it: for how should my name be polluted? and I will not give my glory unto another.
"MY glory"
just because GOD is referring to HIS glory doesnt mean there isnt other glory in the universe.
GOD is referred to as "almighty", "alpha and omega" "the one true god". these are titles and glory that god will never give to another.
in fact, jesus is never called these things, nor did he claim to be any of these things.