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Originally posted by poet1b
reply to post by HunkaHunka
You don't try to prove a negative.
If you claim that marrying and having sex with 10 year olds was acceptable in Western nations, you have to prove this with examples.
Originally posted by poet1b
Isn't Saudi Arabia the birth place of Islam? Seems hard to buy that marrying ten years olds isn't an acceptable practice in the Muslim religion, when the holy land of Islam approves of such behavior.
Originally posted by poet1b
reply to post by HunkaHunka
You claim that marrying 10 years old girls was acceptable in Western nations in the past. Where is your proof? I say that is nothing but nonsense that you have made up. Unless you can provide some proof of your claim, then you are the one who has posted made up nonsense.
For many noble-born or royal women, marriage could and often did take place at a young age. There are many instances or very young girls being betrothed and married under the age of 10 years old. This did not necessarily mean that the marriage was consummated. However, there was a perception that once a girl began her period that she was considered to be of marriageable age. And so the male could begin his almighty pursuit for an heir.
So, typically, when did a young medieval girl embark on the road to “womanhood”:
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Puberty is the process of change that takes place as you grow up and become physically mature and capable of having children.
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Puberty (and thus menstruation / periods) usually takes place between the ages of 10yo and 16yo.
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"Most girls start their first periods at about 12 or 13; however some girls may have periods by the age of 8 and still others may not have a period until they are 14 or 15."(Source: About Women's Health).
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At the time when we have our first period or "menarche", we are crossing the line from girlhood to womanhood.
Now, marriages of noble and royal women were usually for political and dynastic consideration. So, at what age did a young noblewoman enter into marriage.
Throughout most of the 19th century, the minimum age of consent for sexual intercourse in most American states was 10 years. In Delaware it was only 7 years.
Like France, many other countries, increased the age of consent to 13 in the 19th century. Nations, such as Portugal, Spain, Denmark and the Swiss cantons, that adopted or mirrored the Napoleonic code likewise initially set the age of consent at 10-12 years and then raised it to between 13 and 16 years in the second half of the 19th century. In 1875, England raised the age to 13 years; an act of sexual intercourse with a girl younger than 13 was a felony. In the U.S., each state determined its own criminal law and age of consent ranged from 10 to 12 years of age. U.S. laws did not change in the wake of England's shift. Nor did Anglo-American law apply to boys.
...from the same source as above...
In addition to class, the intersection of race and age also gave the law a regulatory character. In India, for example, the prevalence of the custom of child marriage among Hindus led the British colonial authorities to apply the age of consent to married as well as unmarried girls, thereby creating a crime of marital rape that did not exist in British law. The 1860 Indian Penal Code set the age at 10 years; in 1891 the age of consent but not the age of marriage was raised to 12 years. As a result, the age of consent regulated the consummation of marriage, ensuring that it was delayed until an age when Indian girls were considered likely to have begun menstruating.
Originally posted by poet1b
reply to post by HunkaHunka
Age of consent does not mean that the practice was common, or that society approved of forty something men marrying 10 year old girls.
All you provided was that it was legal in some nations for marriage, although from the websites you provided, there were restrictions.
You didn't provide any evidence of forty year old men marrying 10 years girls with societies approval. That was not acceptable.
An age of consent statute first appeared in secular law in 1275 in England as part of the rape law. The statute, Westminster 1, made it a misdemeanor to "ravish" a "maiden within age," whether with or without her consent. The phrase "within age" was interpreted by jurist Sir Edward Coke as meaning the age of marriage, which at the time was 12 years of age.
A 1576 law making it a felony to "unlawfully and carnally know and abuse any woman child under the age of 10 years" was generally interpreted as creating more severe punishments when girls were under 10 years old while retaining the lesser punishment for acts with 10- and 11-year-old girls. Jurist Sir Matthew Hale argued that the age of consent applied to 10- and 11-year-old girls, but most of England's North American colonies adopted the younger age. A small group of Italian and German states that introduced an age of consent in the 16th century also employed 12 years.
An underage girl did not have to physically struggle and resist to the limit of her capacity in order to convince a court of her lack of consent to a sexual act, as older females did; in other words, the age of consent made it easier to prosecute a man who sexually assaulted an underage girl.
Originally posted by poet1b
Age of consent does not mean that the practice was common, or that society approved of forty something men marrying 10 year old girls. All you provided was that it was legal in some nations for marriage, although from the websites you provided, there were restrictions. You didn't provide any evidence of forty year old men marrying 10 years girls with societies approval. That was not acceptable.
Originally posted by masonwatcher
Any adult in the EU can have sex with a 12 year old and they don't have to marry them either. Garry Glitter didn't need to go to Cambodia for his thrills. The fairy just needed to hope on a ferry.
Originally posted by SLAYER69
Originally posted by masonwatcher
Any adult in the EU can have sex with a 12 year old and they don't have to marry them either. Garry Glitter didn't need to go to Cambodia for his thrills. The fairy just needed to hope on a ferry.
You know I wonder how quickly somebody would be an outcast in the west if he went around saying he is hunting for a 10 year old bride?
Originally posted by yenko13
Its a broad brush they paint with and the deeper you look the fater the brush gets , they have girls as young as 3 being married , how much broader can you get, The Muslim Clerics are the educated class of Muslim legal scholars,they are most powerful in the Shi'a tradition of Islam, I will not condone that type of behavior,
Originally posted by poet1b
It is not just Saudi wahibists, it happens in several countries, and women have no rights. It is common in these countries for women to marry much older men at very young ages twelve and earlier, especially girls who have poor families, third and fourth wives of old men, used as sexual slaves. Stop ignoring the facts
Originally posted by MischeviousElf
The evidence provided is clear, while girls in the west could marry as young as twelve, it was never common, follow the links, sixteen was the most common. Any sex outside of marriage had to be consensual, which means it was probably rare, and usually with boys much more close to their own age, or young men that the girls wanted.
Originally posted by poet1b
It is not just Saudi wahibists, it happens in several countries, and women have no rights.
Originally posted by The Last Man on Earth
And, just to reiterate: you cannot be racist against a religion. I wish people would stop trying to do their job as the thought-police by attempting to tie the two together.
Originally posted by Founding
reply to post by HunkaHunka
Do you know what year it is? I'll give you a hint, 2009. Welcome to reality. The year is now and the situation is now. It is not only stupid but a logical fallacy to quote something from the past as a 'disproof' to a current situation. What is still funny is that you have not provided any evidence of the consent of young girls in western countries was socially acceptable. Still, if you had been able to it would not have mattered at all. What is going on in Saudi Arabia is a crime against humanity. There is no way you can justify the their actions by condemning past western actions. Two wrongs don't make a right, remember that.