So there we have it - three different terrorist/paramilitary organisations, all perpetrators of heinous acts and crimes. And yet, here we are today, with seemingly different public opinion regarding their acts and welfare:
• The IRA – apparently opposed in the UK and accepted by certain non-paramilitary groups elsewhere.
• Al-Qaeda – apparently supported by only extremist followers of Islam.
• PLO – Media exposure suggests defence by the “majority”.
So – genuine question - why is this? Is public opinion of terrorist action influenced by their support of the terrorists’ core cause/ perceived validity of the core cause? Is it unconsciously influenced by their perception of the “recipients” of the terrorism? It is concerned with how retaliation/resolution impacts on non-combatants/non-militants?
Personally, I believe if there is a level of consensus in what influences public opinion, then I there's every possibility to consider that this is already being utilised by "the powers that be" to mould our perception and reactions.
I welcome your discussion – to both resolve these queries and to correct and/or further my knowledge in this area.
I am willing to accept that my logic and/or understanding might be flawed. I only ask that you explain why (hopefully nicely
) – after all,
we’re all here to DENY IGNORANCE. [edit on 7/1/09 by lizziejayne]

