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Originally posted by Thorfinn Skullsplitter
Just a quick thought.
Infinite can really have no beginning, because if it did, it would have an end.
So, how can numbers, which have a beginning, be counted for infinity? Know what i'm saying?
Isn't that kind of a paradox?...
The traditional view derives from Aristotle:
"... it is always possible to think of a larger number: for the number of times a magnitude can be bisected is infinite. Hence the infinite is potential, never actual; the number of parts that can be taken always surpasses any assigned number." [Physics 207b8]
Originally posted by nyarlathotep
Did any of you see the movie Pi? If I remember correctly, the main character is looking for stock trends by using Pi and his subsequent loss of sanity thereafter. Please someone correct me if I am wrong.
Originally posted by kegs
I'm rubbish at maths, but I've heard it said many a time that some infinities are bigger than others. How can that be? Does that not mean than some infinities have a disernable end?
Originally posted by crayon
Also, it has never been proven that PI NEVER repeats. There have been representations of PI out to 10,000 or more digits. Maybe it starts repeating at 1,000,000,000 digits. We may bever know.