If homosexuality is such a terrible sin, why is it not in the ten commandments?

Thank you, I thought that I might've been wrong with that one.

I believe in a higher power, but until that power makes it known that they are in fact "Almighty", I'm not getting on my knees again. And you're right that we'll believe we're willing to believe far more farfetched ideas, because often times, there is more physical evidence.

reply to post by rcwj75


So you are saying that there were no homosexuals in the days of Moses. Homosexuals have been around since the beginning of time. You state that heterosexuals have a prior reason to exist because they can procreate. So what about all of these sexually active teenagers and college kids who use birth control? When God created Adam he then created Eve from Adam's rib. Eve was born of Adam's rib, thereby Eve is Adams flesh and blood. Eve is Adam's daughter to say the least. So God created Adam to have an incestuous relationship with his daughter, Eve. What is more of a perversion? Homosexuality or Incest?

Originally posted by Blue_Jay33
Nope, that's called accurate knowledge of the truth of the bible.

No its called opinion.

Understanding what applies in 2009 AD, and what applied in 1009 BC, some things changed others stayed the same.

In whose opinion-yours?

If the principle is in both the Old Testament and the New Testament then it still applies.

Cruelty and violence in the new testament:
skepticsannotatedbible.com...

Cruelty and violence in the old testament:
skepticsannotatedbible.com...

reply to post by Kiltedninja

And you're right that we'll believe we're willing to believe far more farfetched ideas, because often times, there is more physical evidence.

Call it intellectual honesty. Faith is stupid because by definition it's belief without evidence and evidence is the only thing we can rely on to make informed judgements and when it comes to making the biggest bet in our lives - regarding the afterlife, I wanna be informed.

If the principle is in both the Old Testament and the New Testament then it still applies.

Cruelty and violence in the new testament:
skepticsannotatedbible.com...

Cruelty and violence in the old testament:
skepticsannotatedbible.com...

Kinda makes you wish that the almighty had the ability to inspire a non-convoluted book for us to read. Wait a minute, doesn't that seem a little oxymoronic? Maybe not so much oxy, huh.

[edit on 6/2/2009 by Good Wolf]

Originally posted by karl 12

Originally posted by Blue_Jay33

Understanding what applies in 2009 AD, and what applied in 1009 BC, some things changed others stayed the same.

In whose opinion-yours?

...If the principle is in both the Old Testament and the New Testament then it still applies.

I could, and should, make a whole other thread about that. Most Christians tell me that the change of God's approach happened because "mankind changed and therefor was ready to appreciate a savior."

That of course implies that mankind has the ability to evolve spiritually as a species... a most pagan idea indeed. If mankind was truly capable of bettering himself then why did he interfere with a messiah at all?

Because, it rarely gets better before it gets worse, we'll figure it out eventually. Humans are smart...sometimes.
Tell me, if God so felt it necessary to kill his own son by the hands of the Romans, then why is it that people are still F--ked up to this day? Also, I'd like an answer that isn't anything along the lines of 'they haven't accepted Jesus yet.' because I've seen what Jesus power can do to people, ever heard of the Crusades?