posted on Dec, 14 2008 @ 02:06 PM
The Nature and meaning of prophecy.
I have seen both people in the context of now speak in favor and contrery of how prophets like nostradamus and the biblical prophets meant this or
that in a passage and fixed it to a event in the past. Even at the best associative between the event and the statement (of prophecy), any logical
mind needs to wonder if it is actually divination or association. I even watched one guy state that Jesus fulfilled "the prophecies" through a
semiselfwilled self fulfilling prophecy objective. Is this person right or wrong? I'd ask you: Is there a difference?
A truer statement about Prophecy is that it is only good after the fact. I'd hate to try to account for everyone here whom has seen a interruptive of
the written prophecy fall far short and belly up. Several books, and too many websites, falsely claim to understand Nostradamus's unfulfilled works
along side of all biblical and other prophets.
I even see people try to claim the bible was written by God because of the nature of the fulfillment of the prophecies written therein. Again isn't
this just a weak associative natured event? I'd be willing to bet someone could find several passages out of any large bed of text, like the book war
and peace, that have fulfilled some back masked event in history. Does associative reference relate to authorship by God? No. Then what?
Is the truer nature and meaning of prophecy just a conspiracy in religions?
Why AND/OR Why Not?
[edit on 14-12-2008 by Incarnated]