Originally posted by anachryon
With the US Gov't holding a 79.9% ownership stake in Fannie via common stock, how much of a loss would we be looking at with a reverse split?
Hmmm...just add that to the tab, I guess.
Gov would be unaffected for two reasons.
1. If the reverse split occurs it does not devalue the amount held. If you own two share for $1 each, and a 1 for 2 split occurs, you have one share
worth $2 .. same value, different numbers.
It's to entice investors. Usually it means that more people will sell.. very unusual for a Reverse Split to actually work like it's intended.
2. The US Government never purchased Common Stock, they purchased Preferred Stock with an annual yield of 10%. Preferred Stock is uneffected by
splits, of any kind.