posted on Oct, 31 2008 @ 04:33 AM
Originally posted by JesusisTruth
If the doors were open to gentile and Jew, why did God say that in the first place?
He should of just said.
" To thee I don't give no keys, but they are already open "
first off, the doors where not open until the keys were used.
and because you have to understand the "heavenly calling". the bible talks about people going to heaven and being kings and priests. but there will
be righteous people on earth too, ever wonder what jesus ment when he said "the meek shall inherit the earth"?
if this heavenly calling is limited then who gets the call first? the jews had that privileged station before god as his chosen people. the keys to
this heavenly calling were applied first to them. they could have theoretically filled all the spots, but the nation as a whole rejected jesus.
remember the parable of the marriage feast? jesus said that he invited but the seats were not filled up and those invited killed the messengers. same
happened. the christians preached and the jews killed them for it (of which paul had a share). what happened in the parable next? the master invited
all to join from the streets and anyone found. same happened, since the jews did not fill the spots, the invitation was given to the gentiles.
these are the 2 keys given to paul. not the interpreting of scripture and making of policy.