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# 2=-4

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posted on Aug, 11 2008 @ 01:05 PM
Are there any actual real proofs that another number equals another number? For instance i have seen more than one person with the signature:

Since ∞ + 2 = ∞ and ∞ - 4 = ∞
Then ∞ + 2 = ∞ - 4
So 2 + 4 = 0
Then 2 = -4

this obviously isn' true because:

If ∞ = ∞ + 2 AND ∞ = ∞ - 4

then taking ∞ from both sides of

∞ + 2 = ∞ -4

would result in

0 = 0

as both sides equate to ∞.

Also there is the one we were taught in maths:

x = y.
Then x^2 = xy.
Subtract the same thing from both sides:
x^2 - y^2 = xy - y^2.
Dividing by (x-y), obtain
x + y = y.
Since x = y, we see that
2 y = y.
Thus 2 = 1, since we started with y nonzero.
Subtracting 1 from both sides,
1 = 0.

This one isn't real as halfway through you divide by (x-y) which, because at the beginning it was stated x=y, means you have divided by zero, which you can't do.

Another one is one i just made up and proves that 1=0

if 3y + 6z = 0

the dividing by (3y + 6z) gives

1=0

i am sure there is something wrong with it somewhere because it is obviously impossible....i'm not sure what's wrong with it though.

Anyone got any others? Or anyone tell me what is wrong with that last one?

posted on Aug, 11 2008 @ 01:23 PM
Yes I can tell what's wrong with it. You are diving by 0 again.

posted on Aug, 11 2008 @ 01:35 PM
i think this thread is referring to my signature below

( edit: ) My signature has been changed

[edit on 4/20/2008 by billyjoinedat2k8]

posted on Aug, 11 2008 @ 01:37 PM
Yay, my signature caused a thread

A number is a man made creation, therefore it has flaws and can be proven to be wrong. That style can be repeated with many different numbers, yet none of it is true. But at the same time it makes sense...

posted on Aug, 11 2008 @ 01:46 PM

Infinity is not a number and its value remains regardless of your operation, so I suppose your first two statements are true since it has no effect on infinity.

It's like saying nothing minus two apples still equals nothing.

Your last two statements are wrong of course, because the first two are meaningless and don't change the values, although that wasn't your point.

[edit on 11-8-2008 by verylowfrequency]

posted on Aug, 11 2008 @ 01:53 PM

i heard somewhere that it meansi 0.0000000000000001 i think thats the right amount of 0s i suppose it is as much a number as 1 or 2

[edit on 4/20/2008 by billyjoinedat2k8]

posted on Aug, 11 2008 @ 01:54 PM
No, it doesn't make full sense, but athematically it 'appears' to work.

It is not a serious thing by any means, just a way to show all is not as it seems...

posted on Aug, 11 2008 @ 01:56 PM
If 2=-4

then

-4 = eleventy

RITE?

posted on Aug, 11 2008 @ 02:56 PM
ok. so you are dividing by zero. The only hope I see for bringing down all mathematics with this one is finding proof that shows an exception exists to the "you can't divide by zero." rule. That exception being that you can divide zero by zero.

posted on Aug, 12 2008 @ 11:48 AM
reply to post by verbal kint

Aha, so if you can divide 0 by 0 then if

3y + 6z = 0

and you divide by (3y + 6z) (which equals zero) then you would get

1 = 1

hehe, knew it was flawed.

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