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and God said ...RE-plenish the earth....

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posted on Jun, 24 2008 @ 08:01 PM
reply to post by rexpop

Your combining two totally different concepts.

The Talmud and various Kabbalist texts do not support the "Gap Theory". They dont support any ideas about some primordial rebellion lead by a Babylonian King from Isaiah, that some how destroy the earth. I should point out the Bible itself does not support any primordial war. There are implications of bnai elohim falling before the Deluge and after but no rebellion or cosmic war. In fact both the song about the King of Babylon in Isaiah and the story of the rebellion by the Dragon, and war in heaven are both Prophetic. The War in Heaven, the drawing of the stars, and the Dragon are all in the Book of Revelations and are not written as history. They are written as prophecy, this is very clear if it is read in context.

Why and how people read this out of context is beyond me. The only War in Heaven mentioned in the Bible is in the last days before the Day of the Lord. G-d is mentioned numerous times in prophecies as judging, making war upon and destroying the Sabaoth, the Host of Heaven.

There is speculation that there may of been different creations, but that has absolutley nothing to do with Catastrophism. The entire idea here is that all of creation is undone, kind of like the idea of the Big Crunch. That means if there were other creations, there was a Universal Annihilation. Nothing would be left.

It should be pointed out not all Jews accept the Talmud either. The Torah is accepted universally among all types of religious Jews but the Talmud is not.

[edit on 24/6/08 by MikeboydUS]

posted on Jun, 24 2008 @ 08:18 PM
To understand this it helps to do a search on the history of the word replenish , it actually
comes from a french word which is translated in numerous ways such as "to fill", "to be fenced" and "to satisfy".
Here is a link to a interesting write up on this very question .

posted on Jul, 3 2012 @ 01:43 AM
But the word replenish originates from the 1300-1500's and so that word must have been added into an altered and or revised version of the bible long after it was originally written...

Word Origin/Meaning Replenish >

posted on Jul, 3 2012 @ 02:31 AM
reply to post by Komodo

The Hebrew word used here simple means to 'fill abundantly' ... ie there is no RE implied.
edit on 3/7/12 by troubleshooter because: (no reason given)

posted on Jul, 3 2012 @ 05:07 PM
reply to post by Komodo

Hi Komodo

You wrote QUOTE

"This word, REPLENISH, ONLY appears twice in the entire Holy Bible KJV.

Gen 1:28 And God blessed them: and God said unto them, Be fruitful, and multiply, and replenish the earth, and subdue it; and have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the birds of the heavens, and over every living thing that moves upon the earth.

Gen 9:1 And God blessed Noah and his sons, and said unto them, Be fruitful, and multiply, and replenish the earth.


I'm not sure you can make much out of REPLENISH in the paleo-Hebrew since the phrase merely means ''fill the land up to the brim' = וּמִלְאוּ אֶת-הָאָרֶץ

The Hebrew word is pronounced something like (me'lu) and has several shades of meanings - "to fill up" or "be full of" or "to be satisfied with" or "to be fenced in by" .

In 1611 the word 'replenish' meant 'fill up' (from the French term 'repleniss' - to top off) and has NOTHING to do with re-filling something that was full and is now empty ready to be re-filled etc.

That's the biggest problem with trying to understand 'the bible' by reading outdated ENGLISH translations which reflect (e.g. the king james bible of 1611) outdated ways of speaking and no longer extant forms of expression or writing - and not taking into consideration the original language of any given text - in this case paleo Hebrew.

The Greek translation of the passage (in the socalled Septuaginta LXX of BCE 250 out of Alexandria in Egypt) maintains the original idea 'go forward and fill up the land entirely...'

No idea of re-plenishment in the LXX translation either.

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