Originally posted by TruthStrgnrThanFiction
Well what I meant was Biblical prophecy, which is entirely acurate....
Thank you for your input TSTF.!
That appears to be a big claim and, in the interests of balance, I did a Google search for contrary positions on the accuracy of Biblical Prophecy, in
line with good debating strategies.
I found
this, from which I quote an anomaly.
"Jeremiah, writing in about 606 BC, personified the land of Samaria as weeping for her exiled inhabitants:
A voice is heard in Ramah, mourning and great weeping, Rachel weeping for her children and refusing to be comforted, because her children are no more.
(Jeremiah 31:15)
Two questions: Where was Ramah, and who was Rachel? There was a Ramah in Mount Ephraim of the kingdom of Israel (1 Samuel 1:1,19), and also a Ramah in
Benjamin of the kingdom of Judah (Joshua 18:25). Rachel was the mother of Joseph and Benjamin, and the grandmother of Ephraim and Manasseh. Therefore,
Rachel could have wept for her children in either of the two Ramahs. She was the mother of both Mount Ephraim and of Benjamin. However, verses 16-20
clarify that Rachel was weeping at the Mount Ephraim Ramah, for the northern kingdom which was in bondage to Assyria.
Six and a half centuries after Jeremiah wrote this lament for the Kingdom of Isarael, Matthew invented a story about King Herod killing every infant
in Bethlehem and its outskirts, in about 4 BC. Matthew claimed that this slaughter of the innocents fulfilled Jeremiah 31:15."
I am not belittling your religious beliefs, only countering your statement that "Biblical prophecy is entriely accurate."
[Edited on 27-5-2004 by Genya]