Assumption #1: Predetermination exists. The future is immutable.
Consider a slow motion camera, of arbitrary shutter speed, which records the moment of a car crash. The film can be slowed down to observe the event.
At some point, such as a few microseconds right before the crash, it becomes obvious that the crash is not avoidable, even though the crash as not yet
occurred. In fact, at some time BEFORE the event you can predict with arbitrary precision approaching 100% the exact moment of the crash in the
future.
So, if you can predict the state of something in the future, given a small enough time increment, then you can predict the moment in the future
FOLLOWING that first moment, and so on. All it takes is enough precision. Since infinite precision is not possible, it may require a vast amount of
precision to predict the outcome of something quite complicated, such as the outcome of a roulette wheel, or the precise moment that someone launches
the roulette wheel ball.
The reason that the future appears unknown is merely because there exists vast complexity in most systems, and this complexity is beyond the ability
of humans to understand with enough precision to make accurate predictions. In fact, it can be hypothesized that, just as the PAST is 100% immutable,
so is the FUTURE.
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Assumption #2: Any function of time can be represented as a series of frequencies, of variable amplitude and phase, added together to create that
function of time.
This assumption requires very little explanation, because it is simply a statement of
Fourier’s
theorem, which says that any function of time (including a non-periodic function of time) can be decomposed into a series of sine ways of
various frequencies, and these frequencies can be used to describe that function with arbitrary precision.
Math students, first faced with Fourier’s theorem, often find this property of time to be highly mysterious. This is mainly due to the poor way that
Fourier’s theorem is explained to students. To explain this simply (the way it should be explained): Fourier simply stated that, to measure time,
you need to have a function that is periodic, such as a clock, and then count the cycles of that clock until something occurs. This is really the
basis of Fourier’s theory, which often confounds students. Fourier proved what is really rather obvious – you need to have a periodic function,
such as the movement of clock hands, in order to measure time.
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Assumption #3: A mapping function exists that permits any single frequency to be mapped to multiple other frequencies and phases.
This should be obvious if you think about it. If you know your watch is five minutes fast, you can still tell the precise time of day by knowing the
current time of your watch, and how fast your watch is running. The time delay is known as a “mapping” function, in that it maps the time of your
watch to the time of day. (In this case, the “mapping” function is simply to subtract five minutes from the current time.)
In this case, we are mapping one periodic function (the hands of the clock) to another periodic function (the spin of the earth.) Your watch is tuned
to be closely synchronous to the earth’s spin, but that is strictly for convenience. The watch could be totally off, and still be mapped to the
earth’s spin, the orbit of the moon, the orbit of the planets, etc. You can still determine the precise time of day with an inaccurate watch.
There is one special clarification that requires some further elaboration. Consider that your watch is not running at a constant speed, but is
variably changing, i.e. your watch is runs faster some hours, and runs slowly other hours, and this seems random. It becomes more difficult to
calculate the precise time, but some function obviously existed (and is immutably frozen in the past) and hence that function can be determined in the
future (using Assumption #1 above.)
Note that the above statement is really the only original thought in the entire paper, and forms the crux of my entire theory. I invite any discussion
or attack on this, because it may appear circular logic, but since assumption #3 is independent of assumption #1, I suggest that I can use one
assumption to justify another. It is a bit complex, but I think it is valid.
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Notes on Precision
Several times above, I have mentioned “precision”. Let me make clear that the future cannot be predicted “precisely”, but that shouldn’t
matter, because the future can be predicted with arbitrary precision.
It is important to note the difference between practicality and impossibility with regard to precision. For example, to place a “Lunar Landing
Module” at a certain area on the moon might require the value of PI to be known to 4 decimal places. To place a “Martian Lander” at a certain
area of mars might require the value of PI to be known to 12 decimal places. To place an “Andromeda Lander” on a planet in a distant galaxy might
require the value of PI to be known to several thousand decimal places or more.
Here is what you have to realize: There is no distance that is too far away that the value of PI no longer works! All it takes is adequate precision.
The fact that PI cannot be expressed completely as a “ratio” (which is why it is called “irrational”, independent of any other meaning of that
word) has no bearing on its practical use.
Similarly, you can predict the future accurately given enough precision. The more distant into the future, the more precision required. There is no
time in the future that is too far away that it can no longer be predicted. In some ways, this is a consequence of a single point of originating time
(such as the big bang.) The fact that time behaves in this way seems to obviously support the the "Big Bang" theory, i.e. one source event yields
all others.
(Continued in next post…)
[edit on 10-3-2008 by Buck Division]