Originally posted by Britguy
Barbaric as this was, did it actually have anything to do with being a Muslim or was it just a sick murderous act?
In the West we have our own twisted sickos, sexually abusing, then beating to death toddlers and young children. Child killing is not a Muslim-only
trait, neither is beheading.
Here come the muslim apologists.
I'm sure that somewhere, at some time some non-muslim has done something as barabaric as this. But the point missed (purposely?) by these apologists
is that we're not hearing so much about the barbaric non-muslims in the current news, now are we? And for all we know, under sharia "law" this
granfather was possibly within his rights to have cut off the head of his grandchild.
There was a recent ATS thread on sharia "law" coming to the UK, but I never saw the following questions addressed:
Since the 2 systems of law are so different, what if a UK citizen is harmed by a muslim in a way that is not a crime under sharia "law" - for
example revenge for a percieved insult to mohammed? Does the muslim just get off scott free?
[edit on 3/3/2008 by centurion1211]