It looks like you're using an Ad Blocker.
Please white-list or disable AboveTopSecret.com in your ad-blocking tool.
Thank you.
Some features of ATS will be disabled while you continue to use an ad-blocker.
“Their idols are silver and gold, the work of the hands of earthling man. A mouth they have, but they cannot speak; eyes they have, but they cannot see; ears they have, but they cannot hear. A nose they have, but they cannot smell. Hands are theirs, but they cannot feel. Feet are theirs, but they cannot walk; they utter no sound with their throat. Those making them will become just like them, all those who are trusting in them.”—Psalm 115:4-8.
Originally posted by helen670
The Wedding at which Jesus Christ appeared with his Mother needed more wine.....The Theotokos saw this and felt sorry for the people and guests, She asked Jesus Christ t help, and He did that because of her........
John 2:3, 4, JB: “When they ran out of wine [at a wedding feast in Cana], since the wine provided for the wedding was all finished, the mother of Jesus said to him, ‘They have no wine’. Jesus said, ‘Woman, why turn to me [“what is that to me and to thee,” Dy]? My hour has not come yet.’”
Luke 11:27, 28, JB: “Now as he [Jesus] was speaking, a woman in the crowd raised her voice and said, ‘Happy the womb that bore you and the breasts you sucked!’ But he replied, ‘Still happier those who hear the word of God and keep it!’”
Originally posted by whirlwind
I don't understand the connection you are making. I'm sure He wanted Adam and Eve to multiply but the 1:28 verse was directed at mankind, not Adam. Mankind was to replenish the earth.
Even if it was Adam God was instructing to multiply He didn't sentence them to death for that. He expelled them from the Garden because the "serpent" was the "fruit" they partook of. From that union came Cain and he was of the serpent, not Adam.
I understand the significance of 1 John 4:8, in your first paragraph. Was that in error or am I just not understanding the point you are making?
............Whirlwind
Bold added by me for empasis.
Gen 3:6 6And when the woman saw that the tree was good for food, and that it was pleasant to the eyes, and a tree to be desired to make one wise, she took of the fruit thereof, and did eat, and gave also unto her husband with her; and he did eat.
Originally posted by The Oak
1. Christianity can be traced historically to a specific period of time when it began. Are all people living prior to Christ doomed to hell because it wasn't even around yet? I was told that these people get a free pass because they hadn't heard the word of god yet. How stupid do you think I am?
“Do not marvel at this, because the hour is coming in which all those in the memorial tombs will hear his voice [the voice of Jesus] and come out.”
Acts 24:15: “I have hope toward God . . . that there is going to be a resurrection of both the righteous and the unrighteous.”
Rev. 20:13, 14: “The sea gave up those dead in it, and death and Hades gave up those dead in them, and they were judged individually according to their deeds. And death and Hades were hurled into the lake of fire. This means the second death, the lake of fire.”
2. What about Native tribes deep in the Amazon who have never had contact with "our god" "our religion" - do they go to hell?. Again I was told that since they had not heard god's word then they get a free pass. They would go to hell if a missionary had told them of Christ and they refused to believe it. That is laughable. How can people buy into this.
“The Rock, perfect is his activity, for all his ways are justice. A God of faithfulness, with whom there is no injustice; righteous and upright is he.” (Deuteronomy 32:3, 4)
OK, here is my problem with Christianity. I used to be a religious child, then as I grew i developed questions that no one could answer and was actually chastised for questioning "the bible". Here are the main problems I have.
1. Christianity can be traced historically to a specific period of time when it began. Are all people living prior to Christ doomed to hell because it wasn't even around yet? I was told that these people get a free pass because they hadn't heard the word of god yet. How stupid do you think I am?
2. What about Native tribes deep in the Amazon who have never had contact with "our god" "our religion" - do they go to hell?. Again I was told that since they had not heard god's word then they get a free pass. They would go to hell if a missionary had told them of Christ and they refused to believe it. That is laughable. How can people buy into this.
3. My biggest problem is being told that the one only unforgivable sin is to question the existence of God. Talk about fear mongering. If god was a loving father would he not be proud of independent thought and reason.
Undoubtedly someone will reply that you simply must have faith and these issues become pointless. Sorry my evangelical friend that is flawed to the extreme.
In closing I feel the need to add that I do believe in a soul (life force, spirit, however you choose to label it), Sadly however i believe that once we die so does our soul, no afterlife. I hope my belief on that point changes some day, because it would seem that makes our lives here pointless, but can't help the way i feel. Organized religions have not even come close to giving me those answers.
The Fruit was not sex. If it was, why would Eve, after having eaten it, noticed that it was good for "food".
Gen 3:6 6And when the woman saw that the tree was good for food, and that it was pleasant to the eyes, and a tree to be desired to make one wise, she took of the fruit thereof, and did eat, and gave also unto her husband with her; and he did eat.
Bold added by me for empasis.
God had put this tree in the middle of the garden, but the account also states that there were other trees in the garde that they may eat from. If the tree of knowlege was a metaphor for sex, of what are all the rest of the trees a metaphor? Adam & Eve were authorized to eat from them.
The simplest answer is that it was a tree producing real fruit. The fruit was not Adam or Eves property, it was not given to them. This was a test or symbol of the loyalty and obedience to Gods law.
1 John 4:8 was added as a reference noting that God is Love. He would not have given them the commandment to multiply and fill the earth and then condemn them for doing so.
Originally posted by humanunnaki
reply to post by LDragonFire
Mr. LDragonFire (I am assuming you are male). Are you married? Do you have a MySpace site? Oh nevermind. You're probably a kid. I'm a granny. Darn ...
Originally posted by LDragonFire
Originally posted by LDragonFire
1. You shall have no other gods before Me
The first commandment is simple in its wording; there can be no other explanations for what is said or what it means. Yet modern Christianity does not practice monotheism in a pure form. Christianity teaches and preaches the Trinity The belief that the Father[1] the Son[2] and the Holy Spirit[3] are of one God.
This too me is incorrect and a direct violation of the first commandment.
16"For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life. John 3:16 [KJV]
This is a direct violation of the first commandment. A contradiction.
The Father and Son are clearly separate beings. The Father meaning The God as in You shall have NO other Gods before ME. Then We have the Son of God, that said
"Do not let your hearts be troubled. Trust in God; trust also in me.” John 14:1 [KJV]
"If you love me, you will obey what I command.” John 14:15 [KJV]
Again they are separate beings. Separate Gods