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Language changes today much slower today than in previous centuries. Giving what you know about the causes of the changes in English over the last 1500 years, what might be the reason for the slowing in changes? (Hint: The correct answer will take into consideration the following 3 things: how languages change, geography, and how technology changes the people we can communicate with others).
I don't believe language is changing any slower than in previous centuries. In fact, I would assert that language today changes faster than it ever has before. One of the three causes of linguistic evolution is language contact, or when speakers of different dialects and tongues communicate. With the advent of the advent of the Internet and global communications, people of all types can communicate regardless of location, effectively melding many different modules of language together and fueling this catalyst for linguistic change to a higher degree than ever before.
I like your willingness to think contarian, but it's simply no true. The 200 years between the Norman Invasion and Chaucer's writings were very substantial. A a modern day English speaker can understand Chaucer, but you couldn't read English from around the Norman Invasion. However, the 900 years from Chaucer to now has not led to this degree of distance. Having widespread written language and literacy slows changes greatly. Today's rapid communication prevents pockets of people altering the language through isolation like they used to. Your answer explains broader mulitlingualism, but not changes to an existing language.
Originally posted by djohnsto77
Yeah he may be somewhat right, but could someone from Chaucer's time understand some L.A. valley girl's dialect?
"Like hello you know I like totally need the 411 on that guy!"
(in my best valley girl impersonation )