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Originally posted by djohnsto77
So basically they've found (at least elements of) Bible stories written down in ancient Egyptian ruins? I don't know why anyone would find that surprising, the Jews were held as slaves by the Egyptians -- it says so right in the Bible.
Originally posted by djohnsto77
So basically they've found (at least elements of) Bible stories written down in ancient Egyptian ruins? I don't know why anyone would find that surprising, the Jews were held as slaves by the Egyptians -- it says so right in the Bible.
Isaiah 3:17 reads, in regard to the daughters of Zion, "the Lord will uncover their pot."
By the Middle Ages there was already a dispute among biblical scholars over whether the word referred to the females' genitalia or to a part of their heads, Steiner said in his lecture.
But the use of this rare word in one of the Canaanite spells appears to settle the question.
"From this text it is now clear the Hebrew term used by Isaiah refers to the female genitalia," Bar-Asher, of the Hebrew University, said.
Originally posted by EdenKaia
I was curious if there have been any new developements on this? I had heard of other documents in which Semitic was inscribed using Egyptian characters, such as the Book of Mormon, but I didn't know if that was AE hieroglyphs, or the "reformed" egyptian that came later.
Scribes at the time would have been versed in both Semitic and Egyptian anyway, right?
I've seen this before, though not the same circumstance, really. Many Jewish texts were written in Arabic using Hebrew script.
I do like that the similarities between these spells and the biblical texts have been able to settle some long standing arguments over previously "undecipherable" words in the bible:
Isaiah 3:17 reads, in regard to the daughters of Zion, "the Lord will uncover their pot."
By the Middle Ages there was already a dispute among biblical scholars over whether the word referred to the females' genitalia or to a part of their heads, Steiner said in his lecture.
But the use of this rare word in one of the Canaanite spells appears to settle the question.
"From this text it is now clear the Hebrew term used by Isaiah refers to the female genitalia," Bar-Asher, of the Hebrew University, said.
Pretty nifty.
Originally posted by djohnsto77
When I saw something about snakes I assumed they were referring to Exodus and Moses's snake and Pharoah's magicians' snakes. I guess I misunderstood, it would be more accurate to say these are just supposed magical spells from Israel written in hieroglyphs? That does sound strange...
Originally posted by uberarcanist
While the ancient Egyptian language is *not* a Semitic language, it is related to that family. Finally, Semitic speakers lived in Ancient Egypt at many different points in its history.
Originally posted by C.C.Benjamin
This is a point of great interest to me. Is there a rough date on the heiroglyphics or did I miss it in the thread?
Originally posted by uberarcanist
I don't know about you, but to me, a language family with its origins ~ 3000 bce
would be among the oldest.
Originally posted by EdenKaia
Originally posted by uberarcanist
I don't know about you, but to me, a language family with its origins ~ 3000 bce
would be among the oldest.
Which, I suppose, is what I'm asking about. Semitic is a misnomer, based on peoples that came and lived long after these language families were being used.
When you look at it on this spectrum, Semitic (regardless which form you choose) is extremely young. How many languages were spoken before the first cuniform tablet? Before the first Egyptian inscription?
Originally posted by Byrd
For whatever reason (dominance of Christian culture) they were named "Semetic."