Is God's Presence in Heaven AND Hell?

Originally posted by queenannie38
Well, i can only apply it personally according to actual experience - and in that regard it means that my words are not my words but rather God's design for something more than just the pleasure of hearing my own voice.

What does it mean to you?

Oh,my God. That is exactly how I interpret it as well.

Originally posted by GreatTech
Does God suffer?

How could God claim to know everything without knowing suffering?

Perhaps Jesus was right when he said:
"that which you do to the least, that you do unto me."(speaking as/for God)

So, when we even think of sending a soul to hell, then have we not also wished that God would go to hell?

I think God is present in all consciousness. So, if consciousness exists in hell, rest assured a mercyfull god would also be there. Or, the god of the bible is wrong.

Originally posted by SpeakerofTruth
Queen Annie, I have a question. There is a part of Psalm 139 that states:

For no word arises on my tongue, My LORD God, that you do not wholly designate.

What are the connotations of this to you..I know what they are to me,but I am curious what you think it means.

I know you did not ask me, but i would like to reply.

to me this means that all language, and all forms of communication, and all words have been bestowed upon us only from God. Hence: "I am the word".

but, perhaps what was truly meant was: "I am the words, and the consciousness and thought that propells them."

just a thought, but perhaps the singular form of "word" was used instead of "words" because maybe, just maybe, god did not prefer to speak in pluralities. Perhaps an "accuser" asked God: "If you are all knowing, then what is the highest number?"

When do you suppose God would return with an answer to what the highest number is?

so, i theorize, that when it was written "i am the word", perhaps what was meant was: "i am the words".

Jew, God's Nail.

but the Jewish faith does not write out the whole word "God", they would just write down the "g" to represent the word for "god".

Jew, G Nail.

but, i hear no "i" sound from the "i" in the word "nail". so, i call it a deciever, and remove it:

jew, g nal......

jew g nal

jewgnal [mirror] langwej

langwej = language

No, i'm not anti-sementic. And all i have done is take the rules of the bible and applied it them to words. The bible told me to do it ....

"judge not lest thee be judged".
So, unless the author(s) of the bible are hipocrits, then we have the right to apply the rules of the bible to the words of God, of which all words belong to God, and are "wholly designated" by God.

just some thoughts. Perhaps they don't call it the "GO SPELL" aka "GOSPELL" for nothing. but perhaps some people don't buy into the bull of the buy bull aka bible.

silly bulls, olay those syllables!

[edit on 19-12-2006 by Esoteric Teacher]

Swedenborg felt that intention was key in determining one's fate in the next world. The spiritual character of the afterlife determined by what a person spent their life loving the most.

Those who spent their lives loving God and serving the needs of their fellows, are sustained by the selflessness. Those who spent their lives selfishly pursuing selfish goals are crippled in the next one.

He felt the people in the hells were more comfortable there. The light of heaven being a painful thing to their eyes. The hells are sustained as an act of mercy by God to provide a place for souls who have loved selfish and cruel things.

Every now and then a brigade of angels or heaven dwellers will go down and try to help some out. But they are never welcome because the light burns the hell-dwellers eyes.

Originally posted by SpeakerofTruth
Really?

YES we ALL have free-will because the bible tells us that and I don’t think God is sadistic or a rapist.

He’s not a rapist because he doesn’t make all his children love and follow him and he is not sadistic because he doesn’t create life to throw it into the fires of Hell. I mean he doesn't create the thing we are told he loves the most to sin against him.

Originally posted by SpeakerofTruth
You know, I hear people talk about this "free will" that everyone suposedly has. Where in the bible does it explicitly,not implicitly, state that we have "free will?"

Abraham couldn’t have been tested by God when he was told to sacrifice his son on an alter as a burnt offering if he didn’t have free-will.

Genesis 22

"Take your son, your only son, Isaac, whom you love, and go to the region of Moriah. Sacrifice him there as a burnt offering on one of the mountains I will tell you about."
…………
"Do not lay a hand on the boy," he said. "Do not do anything to him. Now I know that you fear God, because you have not withheld from me your son, your only son."

It’s implicitly clear that Abraham had a choice to make, a choice that only free-will could provide. This was God’s test to see if Abraham would follow his word, to see if he was faithful, even though for him to do so Abraham would need to (as he thought) sacrifice his beloved son.

I mean there are so many things in the bible that prove free-will like eve eating the fruit, the testing of Job, the CHOICE to receive salvation from Jesus Christ. On and on it goes...

So there indeed is NO DOUBT that we have free-will.