Why was Sodom destroyed? Was it, as popular Christian culture has stated, because there were so many homosexuals? How can we find out the cause of
God's wrath on the city?
The answer lies in the Word of God, and isn't found in Genesis alone. Some areas from scripture that talk about this:
Isaiah 3:9 (emphasis added):
The look on their faces testifies against them; they parade their sin like Sodom; they do not hide it. Woe to them! They have brought
disaster upon themselves.
Right here Isaiah is saying it was the parading of sin that brought disaster on Sodom. It wasn't the actual sin; if it was, and God's wrath pours
upon us for sins that we are struggling with, then Christ is a liar and His sacrifice on the cross was for naught.
In Ezekiel, when the prophet is chastising Judea for what they have begun, he compares them to Sodom. He, too, explains Sodom's sin:
" 'Now this was the sin of your sister Sodom: She and her daughters were arrogant, overfed and unconcerned; they did not help the poor and
Christ also spoke of Sodom's sin. When He was convicting unrepentant cities in Matthew 11, He said,
23And you, Capernaum, will you be lifted up to the skies? No, you will go down to the depths. If the miracles that were performed in you had been
performed in Sodom, it would have remained to this day.
What was taking place in Capernaum was worse than what was taking place in Sodom. He's saying here that what has been shown to Capernaum, the
miracles and signs, would have saved Sodom. There is repentance. There is grace and forgiveness, but we must cry out to Jesus! He goes on to say in
24But I tell you that it will be more bearable for Sodom on the day of judgment than for you."
Because Capernaum rejected God, it would be destroyed and the fate of Sodom would be better than theirs. No mention of homosexuality. Don't you think
that if this sin was so paramount in God's eyes, Christ might have mentioned that sin specifically? He never does, not once through any gospel