Originally posted by ArchAngel
Arch Angel why wont you admit that just because Israel did make the first attack, they didnt make the declaration of war, Egypt did.
Because its simply not true.
Egypt did not declare war until after the Israeli sneak attack.
It all goes back to the claims that Israel has some moral right to take land.
If the Arabs had attacked first the claim might have had some value, but with Israel as the aggressor all the while claiming self defense the right to take land is simply not there.
You can't steal land from your neighbors by invading in a sneak attack just because you 'knew' that they were going to attack.
What is it about the fact that Egypt commited an act of war by closing Israeli shipping lanes that you do not understand. Its international law under the code of casius belli(ACT OF WAR).
The first overt act of war in the crisis was Egypt’s blockade on May 22 of Israel’s southern port of Eilat and the Gulf of Aqaba, through which passed vital cargo including 80 percent of Israel’s oil imports. Blockading such an international waterway is recognized under international law as a casus belli, or act of war. That’s why, in a televised address the next day, President Johnson denounced Egypt’s menacing actions
Act of War
This is indisputable. This is perfectly reasonable, and nulls any argument you can throw out. Even you should see that, though I doubt you will as you have prooven time and again. Therefore, based on the implementation of international law, the Arabs did act first. Giving justification for a preemptive attack(sneak attack in your terminology). I think the reasonable folks here will agree here. What say you?
