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Maths 3

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TN1

posted on Jul, 26 2005 @ 12:53 PM
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Dear Friends,

Here comes a good question

Show that the limit of the function F(x) = n ^ 1/n as n goes to infinity is equal to 1

TN1




posted on Jul, 26 2005 @ 01:09 PM
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Why the hell would we be doing your homework???



posted on Jul, 26 2005 @ 01:19 PM
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doppelpost

[edit on 26-7-2005 by Nygdan]



posted on Jul, 26 2005 @ 01:30 PM
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that is easy. n^1 is just n. so you would take the limit, and see that it is infinity/infinity, which is equal to 1.


TN1

posted on Jul, 26 2005 @ 01:47 PM
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It doesn't go exactly like that.

It is infinity to the zero (since one over infinity is zero).

But the answer is not that trivial.

(We don't do homework here, we just have an interest for maths)
This is for the member who said I do my homework

TN1



posted on Jul, 26 2005 @ 01:52 PM
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Originally posted by Joshm2u
that is easy. n^1 is just n. so you would take the limit, and see that it is infinity/infinity, which is equal to 1.


Where the heck did you get infinity/infinity!

Its infinity ^ (1/infinity) = infinity ^0 = 1.

This thread is in the wrong forum. Maybe somewhere in BTS?



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