posted on Jun, 4 2005 @ 04:51 PM
I'll try to bite my tonge, but if you ask a question that involes making a moral decision, religion and belief are usually the first reactionary
measure. Sorry I acted like an ass.
But seriously, let's look at the instituation of marraige. Legal marraige invlves a courthouse not a church. Once the two parties enter into
marraige, they are united through certain aspects of the state. The couple can now use marriage status on all tax documaents, and official forms, if
the contracy is broken, by adultery, the party that didn't break the contract, has the ability to seek legal recourse.
In the church, adultery means you are going to hell, or committing a sin. This is an act against god. But who makes these rules, and who
interepererted the bible to make these rules? It is the the church, or the institute on behalf of God. Anymore a divorce in the church really means
nothing, and if you wanted you could marry and divorce as many people as you want.
In the more dovout sects of the moromon religion, multiple parteners are encouraged, adn polygamy is practiced on a narrow scale. The religion does
not condemn this behavior. But usually the union is permanent.
For all the people that BELIEVE in one of these organizations, or more than one, only if they are involved in it or chose to be invilved, do the rules
apply. Even then the rules have loopholes, and are subject to change and interperetation. So why was this question even proposed, when the answer is
right here. Was it to instigate a relgious discussion?
Please do not ask me to give a moral response, and then rip on me for my gnostic views. If my religious beliefs offend you, I am sorry, but I should
have jus as much right as the next person to say what I believe, and base it on my philosophical/spiritual belief.
Spelling errors aren't a sin...get over it
[edit on 4-6-2005 by Eyeofhorus]