I know who the Antichrist is!, page 4
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reply posted on 4-10-2005 @ 09:49 AM by NEOAMADEUS
Hi Resistance:

You seem very sure of yourself by claiming that R. Yehoshua bar Yosef the Galilean (aka "jeezuzz") "never married". How do you come up with that one?

How do you explain John 20:13-20? "Sir, they have taken away "the body of my husband" (Gr. he Ptoma Kuriou Mou) and I do not know where they have laid him out..."

The King James Version uses a kind of contemporary Shakespearean Romeo-and-Juliet Language ("saw you my lord?" = husband) of 1611: "they have moved the body of my lord..."

Also the Talmudic law plainly states: "No man may be called Rabbi unless married."

Mark's Gospel calls R. Yehoshua "rabbi" (transliterated from the Aramaic) and John's gospel has words placed into Miryam ha Megedelleh's mouth, viz. Rabbouni !

Since the tendency is to change Hebraisms into Hellenisms (i.e. transit from "Rabbi" to "didaskale" or "kurios") and not the other way around, we may assume that the Rabinnic titles afforded R. Yehoshua were probably part of the more original kernel of tradition, even though it has been established of late by scholars studying this subject that the more formal Rabbi titles were not generally imposed until after the destruction of the 2nd Temple in AD 70, when Pharasaic Rebbes were the only ones left standing in the Diaspora, the Saduccees (i.e. the sons of Zadok, or Zadukkim) having been killed off in Jerusalem in the Revolt.

So if the title Rabbi was applied to R. Yehoshua bar Yosef in his lifetime, he probably was in fact married, coupled with the predeliction for the Davidds to raise large families in order to re-surrect the "tabernacle of David which is fallen" in the last days (see Amos chapter 9) by producing sons for the throne of an independent Jewish Daviddic Kingdom.

And R. Yeshoshua seems to have been a David from the Tribe of Judah ("son of David, have mercy upon me!) awaiting the time when his bloodline would have replaced the Herodian Saduccean family (i.e. the Macabbean Hashmoneans) who although Levites, after BC 104 started calling themselves "kings" ("you will be unto me a Kingdom OF priests" as they took the verse to read) with the Davids out of power since the Babylonian Exile of 587 BC.

Just a thought.



reply posted on 5-10-2005 @ 12:58 PM by resistance
Originally posted by NEOAMADEUS
Hi Resistance:

You seem very sure of yourself by claiming that R. Yehoshua bar Yosef the Galilean (aka "jeezuzz") "never married". How do you come up with that one?

How do you explain John 20:13-20? "Sir, they have taken away "the body of my husband" (Gr. he Ptoma Kuriou Mou) and I do not know where they have laid him out..."

The King James Version uses a kind of contemporary Shakespearean Romeo-and-Juliet Language ("saw you my lord?" = husband) of 1611: "they have moved the body of my lord..."

Also the Talmudic law plainly states: "No man may be called Rabbi unless married."

Mark's Gospel calls R. Yehoshua "rabbi" (transliterated from the Aramaic) and John's gospel has words placed into Miryam ha Megedelleh's mouth, viz. Rabbouni !

Since the tendency is to change Hebraisms into Hellenisms (i.e. transit from "Rabbi" to "didaskale" or "kurios") and not the other way around, we may assume that the Rabinnic titles afforded R. Yehoshua were probably part of the more original kernel of tradition, even though it has been established of late by scholars studying this subject that the more formal Rabbi titles were not generally imposed until after the destruction of the 2nd Temple in AD 70, when Pharasaic Rebbes were the only ones left standing in the Diaspora, the Saduccees (i.e. the sons of Zadok, or Zadukkim) having been killed off in Jerusalem in the Revolt.

So if the title Rabbi was applied to R. Yehoshua bar Yosef in his lifetime, he probably was in fact married, coupled with the predeliction for the Davidds to raise large families in order to re-surrect the "tabernacle of David which is fallen" in the last days (see Amos chapter 9) by producing sons for the throne of an independent Jewish Daviddic Kingdom.

And R. Yeshoshua seems to have been a David from the Tribe of Judah ("son of David, have mercy upon me!) awaiting the time when his bloodline would have replaced the Herodian Saduccean family (i.e. the Macabbean Hashmoneans) who although Levites, after BC 104 started calling themselves "kings" ("you will be unto me a Kingdom OF priests" as they took the verse to read) with the Davids out of power since the Babylonian Exile of 587 BC.

Just a thought.



I think this is completely off-topic. I don't know why the moderator doesn't delete this. If I were to insert something defending my Christian, King James Only views in the blatant way you have inserted your opinions here that are completely off-topic -- I'd be called up shortly and the thread would be closed down abruptly.

Moderator, how about some fairness here? If I respond to this that means I'm off-topic too.

But I will anyway. I'm King James Only. Why? Because I believe God DID give us a Bible we can believe and trust. After studying the history of the Bible, it's become plain to me that the KJB is God's Word preserved as in Psalm 12:6,7 -- The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times. Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, thou shalt preserave them from this generation for ever.

It's also plain to me that the Bibles that came before the KJB were incomplete, imperfect, but still annointed of God. KJB was the culmination final finished product (purified seven times). Anything which has come AFTER the KJB is a satanic perversion designed to obfuscate and confuse, make peope think there is no Bible that we can believe and trust. Also all these other perversions agree with the JW's Bible on Jesus, take away his role as Creator God that the KJB claims for Him.

Now watch this thread get closed down.


reply posted on 5-10-2005 @ 05:14 PM by resistance
Originally posted by Master Wu
ever read or study the history of the KJB?
Constantine?
Council of Nicea?
330 A.D.?

If you see someone who in any way shape or form bashes the KJB, maybe they know something you don't, and would be wiser if you were to find out what it is they know instead of blindly defending that which is not fully known. Sometimes that which goes against our understanding is more true than the understanding itself.



Mr. Wu -- Darned right I've studied the history of the KJB. Would I not want to know about how God preserved his Word? It's an amazing and wonderful story.

As to Constantine and the Council of Nicea -- that's not Bible. That's just stuff about the early Catholic church. The KJB is not tied to the Catholic church. The manuscripts used for the KJB were those of the common people, not so old as the manuscripts the Catholics used for their Bible, but more numerous and more in agreement with each other. Further, God assembled a group of 52 of the most brilliant linquists the world has ever produced, men of devotion who knew they were presented with a high and holy task to translate the scriptures. In addition, before these men had come other godly and annointed men, some like William Tyndale who had suffered martyrdom, and had produced translations also using the same manuscripts. The bibles that came before KJB were incorporated into the KJB and Tyndale's stuff almost intact. The KJB translators were so careful to be exactly literally correct in every word and even provided italicized words to indicate whether they inserted words for meaning. As I said, I do believe God DID give us a Bible we can believe and trust, and it's obvious to me that he did it with the KJB.


reply posted on 13-10-2005 @ 07:29 PM by NEOAMADEUS
Hi Resistance:

You seem a little muddled by my post. And it's KJV ("King James Version" of 1611) and not "KJB" which makes it sound almost like a Russian Intelligence Agency.

Perhaps you need a quick brush up in your basic bible knowledge (and perhaps a beginners Hebrew and Greek class or two?)

The so-called King James Version or KJV has undergone three major revisions since its compilation in 1604 and its first printed edition in 1611, and its text as it appears today in English incorporates more than 90,00 critical-textual changes from the 1611 English version.

So my question to you is: Which King James Version therefore do you believe is the inspired one, then ?

The manuscripts which were used to produce the so-called Erasmus “Textus Receptus” of 1521 which later morphed into the King James Version in England were of the so-called Byzantine and Western family of MSS only:

These MSS include (A) the Codex Alexandrinus, the Byzantine family type text from c. AD 430 and also (D) the so-called Codex Bezae-Biglot, a Western Family text type written in Latin and Greek dated around 530 AD.

These represent fairly poor text types on which to build an entire belief system upon.

Unfortunately the poor compilers of the KJV did not even know of the existence of the later discovered manuscript copies in Greek of the NT e.g. the Codex Vaticanus (B), the Codex Sinaiticus (Aleph), the Codex Freer-Washingtoniensis (W), or the Codex Ephraemi (C) all which would have helped their edition, neither were they aware of the major papyri we now possess e.g. p45 p52 p66 or p75.

So your KJV is greatly flawed: the King James Version did not have a very wide range of manuscripts from which to work: the compilers did the best they could by merely patching together what they thought was the text of "the word of god" from what materials lay at hand.

So my question to you would be: How can you possibly call such a patch job the “word of god” ?

I am assuming of course that you must know by now that the “bible” was not originally written in English. Or maybe you did not know that.

The “old testament” was written without vowels in paleo-Hebrew (e.g. see the poetical portions of the book of Judges like the Song of Deborah, or the Book of Amos chapters 1-8, or the poetry found in proto Isaiah-chapters 1-39, or even take certain ancient Psalms stolen from the Canaanite liturgies e.g. Ps. 29, etc.) middle Hebrew (e.g. Psalms 1, or trito-Isaiah beginning at chapter 40, or Zechariah chapters 9-12 etc.) and late almost Mishnaic Hebrew (e.g. Ecclesiastes-Qoheleth) as well as Aramaic (e.g. parts of Daniel (e.g. chapter 7) and parts of Ezra).

The “new testament” was written down probably originally between AD 60 and AD 130 in various styles of “koine Greek” ranging from the childish and ignorant (e.g. Mark’s gospel’s baby Greek grammar or the impossible Greek grammatical howlers and choppy Greek found in the Book of Revelation chapters 4 to 19 etc.) to fairly fluent and even downright stylish at times (e.g. the author of Luke’s gospel--whoever he was----and some of the Greek epistles attrributed to Saul of Tarsus aka "Pau", e.g. "To the Romans" and the Epistle of I Corinithians etc.).

Again, I would suggest you take a Greek and a Hebrew course. Since after all, if you cannot read the various contradictory texts of "the bible" in their original languages you will forever be writing nonsense like your thread to me, and think about it:

How can you possibly even believe what you cannot even read?

Just a thought.



[edit on 13-10-2005 by NEOAMADEUS]
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