Originally posted by NEOAMADEUS
Hi Resistance:
You seem very sure of yourself by claiming that R. Yehoshua bar Yosef the Galilean (aka "jeezuzz") "never married". How do you come up with that
one?
How do you explain John 20:13-20? "Sir, they have taken away "the body of my husband" (Gr. he Ptoma Kuriou Mou) and I do not know where they have
laid him out..."
The King James Version uses a kind of contemporary Shakespearean Romeo-and-Juliet Language ("saw you my lord?" = husband) of 1611: "they have
moved the body of my lord..."
Also the Talmudic law plainly states: "No man may be called Rabbi unless married."
Mark's Gospel calls R. Yehoshua "rabbi" (transliterated from the Aramaic) and John's gospel has words placed into Miryam ha Megedelleh's mouth,
viz. Rabbouni !
Since the tendency is to change Hebraisms into Hellenisms (i.e. transit from "Rabbi" to "didaskale" or "kurios") and not the other way around,
we may assume that the Rabinnic titles afforded R. Yehoshua were probably part of the more original kernel of tradition, even though it has been
established of late by scholars studying this subject that the more formal Rabbi titles were not generally imposed until after the destruction of the
2nd Temple in AD 70, when Pharasaic Rebbes were the only ones left standing in the Diaspora, the Saduccees (i.e. the sons of Zadok, or Zadukkim)
having been killed off in Jerusalem in the Revolt.
So if the title Rabbi was applied to R. Yehoshua bar Yosef in his lifetime, he probably was in fact married, coupled with the predeliction for the
Davidds to raise large families in order to re-surrect the "tabernacle of David which is fallen" in the last days (see Amos chapter 9) by producing
sons for the throne of an independent Jewish Daviddic Kingdom.
And R. Yeshoshua seems to have been a David from the Tribe of Judah ("son of David, have mercy upon me!) awaiting the time when his bloodline would
have replaced the Herodian Saduccean family (i.e. the Macabbean Hashmoneans) who although Levites, after BC 104 started calling themselves "kings"
("you will be unto me a Kingdom OF priests" as they took the verse to read) with the Davids out of power since the Babylonian Exile of 587 BC.
Just a thought.
I think this is completely off-topic. I don't know why the moderator doesn't delete this. If I were to insert something defending my Christian,
King James Only views in the blatant way you have inserted your opinions here that are completely off-topic -- I'd be called up shortly and the
thread would be closed down abruptly.
Moderator, how about some fairness here? If I respond to this that means I'm off-topic too.
But I will anyway. I'm King James Only. Why? Because I believe God DID give us a Bible we can believe and trust. After studying the history of
the Bible, it's become plain to me that the KJB is God's Word preserved as in Psalm 12:6,7 -- The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried
in a furnace of earth, purified seven times. Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, thou shalt preserave them from this generation for ever.
It's also plain to me that the Bibles that came before the KJB were incomplete, imperfect, but still annointed of God. KJB was the culmination final
finished product (purified seven times). Anything which has come AFTER the KJB is a satanic perversion designed to obfuscate and confuse, make peope
think there is no Bible that we can believe and trust. Also all these other perversions agree with the JW's Bible on Jesus, take away his role as
Creator God that the KJB claims for Him.
Now watch this thread get closed down.