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U.S. Supreme Court Says All Wisconsin Mailed-in Ballots Must be Received by 8pm on Election Day.

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posted on Oct, 27 2020 @ 01:37 AM
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Tuesday, October 27, 2020

Wisconsin is once again expected to be a very close state when it comes to votes for President, just like it was in 2016. President Trump beat Hillary Clinton by just 20,000 votes. Three million votes for President were cast in Wisconsin that year.

This U.S. Supreme Court Decision will help the Department of Justice and Federal Election Commission better police the mailed-in ballots in Wisconsin.

The Supreme Court on Monday evening voted 5-3 against Democrats who were pushing to extend the deadline for counting absentee ballots in Wisconsin by six days in order to provide the state more time to deal with the surge in mail-in voting caused by the Covid-19 pandemic.

The decision, announced in an order, came eight days before Election Day. Wisconsin is a key battleground state in the battle between President Donald Trump and Democratic nominee Joe Biden.

As a result of the Supreme Court’s move, ballots will have to be delivered by 8 p.m. on Nov. 3 to be counted.
Source: www.cnbc.com...

Wisconsin 2016 Results: www.nytimes.com...

Since the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that Wisconsin can NOT count any ballots that arrive after 8pm on November 3rd, does that mean EVERY STATE must now adhere to the same rule?

-CareWeMust

edit on 10/27/2020 by carewemust because: (no reason given)




posted on Oct, 27 2020 @ 01:41 AM
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Didn’t they rule the opposite for a different state last week? Or am i remembering wrong?



posted on Oct, 27 2020 @ 01:47 AM
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a reply to: Ohanka
The Pennsylvania Supreme Court ruled that the ballots in Pennsylvania could be received and counted up to 5 days after the election, so long as they were postmarked on November 3rd (election day), or earlier.

I bet if a Republican in PA wanted to, he/she could have the U.S. Supreme Court overrule the Pennsylvania Supreme Court, in a heartbeat. And any other state for that matter. Presumably, what the U.S. Supreme Court rules, is supposed to be the "law of the land".

But that's just speculation, because I'm not an attorney.



posted on Oct, 27 2020 @ 01:50 AM
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posted on Oct, 27 2020 @ 02:16 AM
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posted on Oct, 27 2020 @ 02:47 AM
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posted on Oct, 27 2020 @ 04:46 AM
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originally posted by: carewemust
a reply to: Ohanka
The Pennsylvania Supreme Court ruled that the ballots in Pennsylvania could be received and counted up to 5 days after the election, so long as they were postmarked on November 3rd (election day), or earlier.

I bet if a Republican in PA wanted to, he/she could have the U.S. Supreme Court overrule the Pennsylvania Supreme Court, in a heartbeat. And any other state for that matter. Presumably, what the U.S. Supreme Court rules, is supposed to be the "law of the land".

But that's just speculation, because I'm not an attorney.


That's not correct - or at least not the whole story.

The PA Supreme Court ruled that ballots could be counted if received up to 3 days after the election - even ballots with no postmark AND that no signature check was required.

The US Supreme Court then took up the legal challenge against this and they voted 4-4, thus were not able to overturn the obvious fraud plan in PA.

The question now is why did the SC vote 4-4 wrt to PA, but 5-3 wrt to Wisconsin????

Chief Justice Roberts said : 'Different bodies of law and different precedents govern these two situations and require, in these particular circumstances, that we allow the modification of election rules in Pennsylvania but not Wisconsin'.

Odd.
edit on 27/10/2020 by UKTruth because: (no reason given)



posted on Oct, 27 2020 @ 06:13 AM
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originally posted by: Guiltyguitarist
August can tell us


The difference appears to be that Wisconsin tried to extend the period by fiat and not via law. As the Constitution dictates the States have full latitude to make their own election law.




edit on 27-10-2020 by AugustusMasonicus because: Networkdude has no beer



posted on Oct, 27 2020 @ 06:17 AM
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a reply to: carewemust

They should have to be received a full two weeks before Election Day.



posted on Oct, 27 2020 @ 06:49 AM
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I am going to be old fashioned and vote in person ON election day.
I thought the whole point of mail in ballots were to help people avoid going to the polls. They don't have to even bother to get to the polls and now it is too much bother for them to mail them to get there on time when they have had weeks... even months to get their ballots and mail them???

Can I go to the polling place and vote after 8 pm on the day of the election? NO!
This year is pissing me off.



posted on Oct, 27 2020 @ 06:51 AM
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originally posted by: AugustusMasonicus

originally posted by: Guiltyguitarist
August can tell us


The difference appears to be that Wisconsin tried to extend the period by fiat and not via law. As the Constitution dictates the States have full latitude to make their own election law.




If a state decided to make a law that mail in ballots for this election would be counted if they are received by April 1st of 2021, we would need to hold off on the inauguration of POTUS until then?



posted on Oct, 27 2020 @ 07:02 AM
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originally posted by: butcherguy
If a state decided to make a law that mail in ballots for this election would be counted if they are received by April 1st of 2021, we would need to hold off on the inauguration of POTUS until then?


No, it would conflict with the Electoral process as delineated in the Constitution.



posted on Oct, 27 2020 @ 07:19 AM
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originally posted by: AugustusMasonicus

originally posted by: butcherguy
If a state decided to make a law that mail in ballots for this election would be counted if they are received by April 1st of 2021, we would need to hold off on the inauguration of POTUS until then?


No, it would conflict with the Electoral process as delineated in the Constitution.

Then they don't have full latitude.



posted on Oct, 27 2020 @ 07:21 AM
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originally posted by: butcherguy
Then they don't have full latitude.


Stop being pedantic, do I really need to say 'under the Constitution'? Or did you know that already since I mentioned the Constitution in my first post?





edit on 27-10-2020 by AugustusMasonicus because: Networkdude has no beer



posted on Oct, 27 2020 @ 07:22 AM
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originally posted by: AugustusMasonicus

originally posted by: butcherguy
Then they don't have full latitude.


Stop being pedantic, do I really need to say 'under the Constitution'? Or did you know that already since I mentioned the Constitution in my first post?





You can say I am being pedantic.
Words mean things.
I am pointing out that they have limits to what their election laws encompass.
edit on b000000312020-10-27T07:23:37-05:0007America/ChicagoTue, 27 Oct 2020 07:23:37 -0500700000020 by butcherguy because: (no reason given)



posted on Oct, 27 2020 @ 07:30 AM
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Dems clearly pushing for voter fraud, chaos, and hoping to drag Trump's win out long enough for drunk Pelosi to go on a power trip.



posted on Oct, 27 2020 @ 07:37 AM
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originally posted by: butcherguy
I am pointing out that they have limits to what their election laws encompass.


Which is why I mentioned the Constitution.



posted on Oct, 27 2020 @ 07:54 AM
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originally posted by: AugustusMasonicus

originally posted by: butcherguy
I am pointing out that they have limits to what their election laws encompass.


Which is why I mentioned the Constitution.

This is where you mentioned the Constitution:


As the Constitution dictates the States have full latitude

You may want to go back and insert a comma, if that is what you meant to say. the comma changes it.
Without the comma, the sentence says that the Constitution dictates that the States have full latitude.
With a comma, it would mean that the States have full latitude.... , as the Contitution dictates.



posted on Oct, 27 2020 @ 07:55 AM
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a reply to: butcherguy

Like I said, pedantic.



posted on Oct, 27 2020 @ 08:41 AM
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originally posted by: carewemust
a reply to: Ohanka
The Pennsylvania Supreme Court ruled that the ballots in Pennsylvania could be received and counted up to 5 days after the election, so long as they were postmarked on November 3rd (election day), or earlier.

I bet if a Republican in PA wanted to, he/she could have the U.S. Supreme Court overrule the Pennsylvania Supreme Court, in a heartbeat. And any other state for that matter. Presumably, what the U.S. Supreme Court rules, is supposed to be the "law of the land".

But that's just speculation, because I'm not an attorney.


I believe Trump said they will be appealing that ruling to a higher court.




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