i'm just going to enter a rejoinder to my previous enthusiasm, which is that although I can absolutely see many of the dots connecting in the ways
noted by the OP & also in his primary source, I have a somewhat deep concern that approximately two thirds of the way into that source page, after
hearing many excellent lines of the overarching theory, the author then suddenly makes a statement which can in no uncertain terms be interpreted as
supportive of the doctrine espoused by Hitler in 'Mein Kampf'. Just prior to that shocker, the source author had alluded to the Holocaust as being
indirectly the fault of the 'Court Jews' of Franklin D Roosevelt, who should have allowed the German/ European Jews to emigrate to the USA, and the
implication is that those self-hating Jews were the cause of the Holocaust, as opposed to Hitler & the Nazi Party, and the Germanic tribes who went
along with Hitler to skirt the jaws of Hell in their efforts at world subjugation.
I therefore consider the source material to be utterly sullied, and as a result, although I respect much of the actual evidences for a Satanic-Judaic
(anti-nomianist) elitist intelligentisia in Europe & the USA in preceding centuries, the author has conflated that fact with an utterly abhorrent
'solution' to that fact. Indeed, it may have been the case that the anti-nomianist Judeo-Satanic (Sabbatean-Frankist) was a legitimate & key factor
in the growth & development of anti-Judaic sentiment in Europe & the USA in the centuries & decades leading up to WW2; however, it is completely wrong
to cling to any sort of conviction that Hitler & his supporting elites in the Nazi party were in any way justified in seeking the extermination of all
Jews via the war & the Holocaust as 'final solution' to 'the Jewish problem' (which more accurately should perhaps have read "the Sabbatean-Frankist
anti-nomianist Judaic Elitism problem'.
It is the fact that ALL Jews were considered fair game in seeking an ending of the Sabbatean-Frankist problem, which was so utterly abhorrent that all
of the free world joined together in seeking to prevent the psychopathic imbeciles who felt it WAS appropriate from taking over the West, and any
other parts of the world they set their sights on. I can see that perhaps the Nazi solution was a variant on the 'Kill them all; God knows His own'
paradigm of eliminating any perfidious enemy which has dug into a shielding of the ordinary civilian masses when the # hits the fan.
"Kill them all, and we're bound to get the ones who are responsible for the abominable practices we despise, which have subjugated the world & brought
us close to ruination. If we try to be humane & target only those who have gone to ground, hiding among the ranks of their lower class
ethno-religious peers, then it will take a thousand years to root out those we seek. We don't have that much time."
Although it's an effective means of destroying those whom you have targeted, it's also the way in which 97% of those you summarily murder - without
evidence or trial of any sort - are in fact totally innocent of any sort of crime against the state/ the nation/ the racial group/ the wider cultural
And so I must part ways with this thread. However, I am now in possession of supporting evidences which strongly suggest that my rough intuitions
regarding certain seemingly connected destructive factors - such as Freud's decimation of the field of psychology & all the dark tidings it has had
for our 20th/21st century psychological wellbeing - were correct; that there is in fact an overarching connecting force running between such
evidences, and that at least partially it seems to involve a Satanic anti-nomianist pseudo-Judaic 'Sabbatean-Frankist' conspiracy among the
uber-elites (1% of 1%) who have spread themselves thinly, yet whom are in possession of the greatest measure of power that any one group in the
history of the world has ever held.
edit on JulySunday1817CDT04America/Chicago-050046 by FlyInTheOintment because: just because!