posted on Jun, 23 2018 @ 02:02 PM
a reply to: DJW001
'How could Zionism exist before the diaspora?'
I'm not sure what you mean by that, exactly.
The Diaspora of the Judaean population began long before the time of 'Jesus' way back in 587BCE when the Davidds were removed from power after Babylon
ground Jerusalem to powder, and anyone of any substance or education was exiled to Babylon, where 75% of them stayed never to return home; of the 24
priestly families exiled out of Israel, only 4 of them ever came back after the edicts of Cyrus in 517 BCE who allowed them to return (for this, Cyrus
the Persian, a gentile, was called 'my Messiah, saith YHWH, see Deutero-Isaiah 45:1)
The phrase that early Nazorean Messianists used during 'Jesus' lifetime and by the earliest 'Christians' had to do with the role of the Messiah (in
the Last Days) to ingather the 'exiles' from the Diaspora ('the Lost Sheep of the House of Yisro'el scattered amongst the gentiles') along with
re-instating the Davidds back on the throne in Jerusalem, which had been seized by Babylon (587 BCE), Persia (531 BCE - 331 BCE), Syrian-Greeks
(331-163 BCE), Macabbean Tsadukkim (163-63 BCE) and finally Rome (63 BCE - 138 CE) the last of whom made Jerusalem a pagan gentile city called Aeolia
Capitolina by the Roman Emperor Adrian (which he made completely 'Judenrein', (i.e. 'free of Jews'). But the Diaspora of Babylon also saw between 400
and 200 BCE a wider migration of Judaeans into Alexandria and Turkey/Asia Minor, many settlements of which were mentioned by the author of the
so-called Book of Revelation (whoever he was) e.g. Smyrna, Ephesus, Thyatra etc. or the cities with a sizeable Jewish population that Paul targeted
(Corinth, Rome, Galatia, Thesalonike, etc.)
Clear as mud ?
edit on 23-6-2018 by Sigismundus because: (no reason given)