posted on May, 30 2018 @ 10:56 PM
a reply to: Liquesence
Point is that there was zero reason to “curb gun violence” with “sensible gun control” until 1934. Why did we then? Mafia violence over
bootlegging alcohol during prohibition (which was over) and bank robbers being violent during the Great Depression (which we were recovering from by
Of course an argument could be made that both situations were caused by the government overreach due to Prohibition and the Federal Reserve Act (which
required the Progressive Income Tax to find the debt of using Federal Reserve Notes and forfeited and seized privately held gold in 1933 before
altering the gold standard to $35/oz. Both of which countered the US Constitution by having amendments added and Congress setting the accepted
currency to a degree. People actually lost about $10 per ounce with the forced selling of held gold and the bump to $35 a year later.
1968 changes to gun laws was a short time frame until the dropping of the gold standard in 1972. 1986 changes were mostly due to Reagan’s
assassinaton attempt, yet one can point to the dot com boom as a major change in the ways of conducting commerce and tax avoidance on purchases. But
many will point to the Gulf War’s firming the petrodollar policy as the closer change to US economics.
Prior to 1934 anything was acceptable arms to own including cannons. Many of the cannons used in the Civil War were privately owned as well as ships
at sea used for warfare and transport for CSA diplomats to Europe for treaties and assistance.