The Historical Passion of Christ - What Really Happened

a reply to: AlienVessel

If you wanted to learn you would be researching what the best scholars on the planet. Who actually go back and translate the ancient manuscripts are saying..

Not reading up on apologist theories that don’t have ANYTHING scholarly to say about the subject.


Jesus and his actual deciples were jews..

Which means they held the Jewish interpretation of reality.

You will not find answers to their writings by looking at it from a modern Christian viewpoint..


Since Jews don’t have a hell and Christians hadn’t invented one yet. Then John couldn’t be talking about the Christian hell..

Since Jews did believe the messiah would be signaled by all the world instinctively knowing gods laws. It is fair to guess John did too.

So that’s what he was waiting on.

a reply to: Sigismundus

Not just is the lifeless body of Jesus referred to as Gr. σῶμα /soma/ (Matthew 27:58), suggesting a lifeless, not clinically dead Jesus-- but also, look up the Greek verb/adjective τεθνηκότα /tethnēkota/ «was/is dead/dying» (John 19:33) which is perfect participle of Gr. θνῄσκω /thnéskó/ which translates «I am dead/dying», again suggesting a lifeless but still not dead Jesus. The word itself holds a library of hints, like, how can a dead person say express that he is dead using language? Well, let us look at where else this word is used in NT.

There are a total of 9 occurrences of Strong's Greek 2348 θνῄσκω:

Matthew 2:20, Mark 15:44, Luke 7:12 & 8:49, John 11:44 & 19:33, Acts 14:19 & 25:19 and finally 1 Timothy 5:6. In neither of these places does the word describe clinically dead persons, but merely unconscious. If we leave out the places where the word describes Jesus, the word NEVER describe a dead person, but typically people Jesus says are not dead but merely sleeping. Like the quote below from the gospel of John in the story of Lazarus:

The man who had died came out, his hands and feet bound with linen strips, and his face wrapped with a cloth. Jesus said to them, “Unbind him, and let him go.” John 11:44 [ESV]

Or how about this one from Acts 14:19f about when Saulus («Paul») was stoned in the town of Lystra:

But Jews came from Antioch and Iconium, and having persuaded the crowds, they stoned Paul and dragged him out of the city, supposing that he was dead. But when the disciples gathered about him, he rose up and entered the city, and on the next day he went on with Barnabas to Derbe. Acts 14:19f [ESV]

Every damn time the word used to describe Jesus as being dead is used elsewhere in NT it refers to lifeless people who are but unconscious and turn out very much alive and kicking about soon after Jesus has healed them.

Also, in the original Nicene creed showing there was obviously a widespread dissensus concerning Jesus' supposed death several centuries later in 325 AD at the fist worldwide ecumenical council at Nicaea, and the very origin of what we refer to as the Church today. Jesus' death isn't mentioned at all, just that he suffered or Gr. παθόντα /pathónta/ past tense of Strong's G-3958 πάσχω /paschó/ «I suffer».

Explain that!

Captivating stuff.