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I mean how convoluted is,
“God creates himself in human form, as his own son (figure that out why don’t ya). Just so he could sacrifice himself, to himself. to appease himself. To save the human race from himself. “
That is more convoluted than Batman vs Superman’s plot..
The Talmud isn’t the only ancient text that was filled with racial propaganda. The NT became VERY anti-Jew , VERY fast..
So it goes from being a religion “by Jews, for Jews”, to a religion by Jews for gentiles..
In fact I think that is supposed to be talking about king David..
Why did almost no Jews convert to Christianity??
Because the jesus tale is the antithesis of Judaism..
According to jews it is not..
According to secular historians it is not..
this chapter is generally quoted pretty accurately, although some liberties are taken with the Hebrew. For example, verse 5 says the servant was punished BECAUSE OF our sins, not “for” our sins. It’s a small, but significant difference. However, even if the translation is essentially correct, who says this chapter is a messianic prophecy? Most commentators say the “servant” is Israel. Israel is called G-d’s servant throughout the Book of Isaiah; look at the chapters leading up to this one – Isaiah 41:8-9, 44:1-2, 45:4, 48:20, 49:3 – they all overtly call the nation of Israel the servant. (This list is hardly exhaustive; there are many other examples. These are just the ones in the immediate vicinity of Isaiah 53.) Israel is called the servant in many other places, as well. See Psalms 136:22 and Jeremiah 30:10. Now look at Jeremiah 30:17, just a few verses later, speaking of Israel as being afflicted – it’s thematically the same as Isaiah 53:4 because they’re talking about the same thing – the nation of Israel! So Israel is called G-d’s servant in many places and the messiah is called a servant… pretty much no place! Ezekiel does use the phrase “My servant David” to refer to the messiah, who is the descendant of David, but David is clearly the servant in those verses.
For dogs have encompassed me; a company of evildoers have enclosed me; like a lion, they are at my hands and my feet.
For dogs have compassed me, the assembly of the wicked have enclosed me; they pierced my hands and my feet.
This question evaporates when we discover that throughout the Bible, the Jewish people are consistently referred to as a singular entity, using the singular pronoun. For example, when God speaks to the entire Jewish nation at Mount Sinai, all of the Ten Commandments are written as if speaking to an individual (Exodus 20:1-14). This is because the Jewish people are one unit, bound together with a shared national destiny (see Exodus 4:22, Deuteronomy chapter 32). This singular reference is even more common in biblical verses referring to the Messianic era, when the Jewish people will be fully united under the banner of God (see Hosea 14:6-7, Jeremiah 50:19). As we will see, for numerous reasons this chapter cannot be referring to Jesus. Even in the Christian scriptures, the disciples did not consider the Suffering Servant as referring to Jesus (see Matthew 16:21-22, Mark 9:31-32, Luke 9:44-45). So how did the Suffering Servant come to be associated with Jesus? After his death, the promoters of Christianity retroactively looked into the Bible and “applied” – through mistranslation and distortion of context – these biblical verses as referring to Jesus. Missionary apologist Walter Riggans candidly admitted: “There is no self-evident blueprint in the Hebrew Bible which can be said to unambiguously point to Jesus. Only after one has come to believe that Jesus was the Messiah, and more specifically the kind of Messiah that he is, does it all begin to make sense...” (Yehoshua Ben David, Olive Press 1995, p.155) The intention is not to denigrate another religion, but rather to understand the true meaning of the Divine word.