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Could Mossad Be Using Pedophilia Perversion To Control Global Politics Through Blackmail?

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posted on Nov, 26 2017 @ 12:24 PM
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a reply to: theultimatebelgianjoke

i just checked sanhedrin 69a.

what you posted does not exist in reality.

the page is talking about who is liable for punishments in which cases.

not what is permissible,


edit on 26-11-2017 by dashen because: (no reason given)




posted on Nov, 26 2017 @ 12:38 PM
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Early-teen marriage was possible in Judaism. In Judaism girls reach adulthood at 12 and boys at 13. According to the Talmud, a father is commanded not to let his his daughter marry anyone until she grows up and says, "I want this one".[75] A marriage that takes place without the consent of the girl is not an effective legal marriage.[76] Despite the young threshold for marriage, a large age gap between the spouses was opposed,[77] and, in particular, marrying one's young daughter to an old man was declared as reprehensible as forcing her into prostitution.[78] A ketannah (literally meaning "little [one]") was any girl between the age of 3 years and that of 12 years plus one day;[79] he could arrange a marriage for her in her best interests.[79] However, after reaching the age of maturity, she would have to agree to the marriage to be considered as married. If the father was dead or missing, the brothers of the ketannah, collectively, had the ability, as had her mother.[79] In these situations, a ketannah would always have the right to annul her marriage, even if it was the first.[80]


the source text and ability to read would be helpful to you



posted on Nov, 26 2017 @ 12:40 PM
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originally posted by: dashen
a reply to: theultimatebelgianjoke

i just checked sanhedrin 69a.

what you posted does not exist in reality.

According to Sefaria.org, a "living library of Jewish texts online", it very much does say that. Is this not accurate?


Rabbi Yirmeya of Difti says: We learn in another mishna (Nidda 44b) as well that one follows the majority even in cases of capital law: A girl who is three years and one day old whos father arranged her betrothal can be betrothed with intercourse, as, despiter her age, the legal status of intercourse with her is that of full-fledged intercourse. And in a case where the childless husband of a girl three years and one day old dies, if his brother, the yavam, engages in intercourse with her, he acquires her as his wife. And if a girl of that age is married, a man other than her husband is liable for engagin in intercourse with her due to violation of the prohibition against adultery, as despiter her age she is legally considered to be a married woman. - Sefaria.org - Sanhedrin 69a



posted on Nov, 26 2017 @ 12:54 PM
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a reply to: Noncents

in context it is referring to what punishments one liable to if they engage in this activity.
i have shown above, in the Talmud, that this behavior is strictly prohibited.

the quoted passage does not mean what you say it means in context



posted on Nov, 26 2017 @ 01:02 PM
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a reply to: Noncents


A few points that can help a bit here:
The Torah said that marital relations alone, without a ring, can effect the first stage of marriage (kiddushin). Yet the Talmud states (Kiddushin 12b) that anyone doing such a crass thing (even two mature, discreet, stable, adults) should be flogged!
So it's a technicality at best.
The Torah allowed for a father to marry off his young daughter, yet the Talmud states that as a matter of recommended practice, "it is prohibited to marry off a young daughter until she is old enough and she says 'I like him'.
" It appears that thousands of years ago, it was such a dangerous world for a girl out on her own that marriage was a much better predicament for her.
The whole thing about age 3 is a technicality's technicality. With regards to certain laws, activity below the age of 3 does not affect her halachic status (for instance, a woman still has the halachic full status of "virginity" no matter what happened to her before age 3).
[Lawyers' note: any sort of child abuse is halachically, legally, and morally wrong, and will be punished by G-d and state.] Sexual relations can only change her halachic status starting with age 3; hence, if a father agreed to marry off his young daughter by relations (violating two Talmudic taboos, above), the minimum age at which such an act would take effect would be 3. I hope that helps somewhat.


those quotes are taken from places where punishments for adulterers and other sexual crimes are dicussed.

it would help if you read the multiple talmudic sources i linked that clearly state such amoral and reprehensible behavior is strictly forbidden



posted on Nov, 26 2017 @ 01:02 PM
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a reply to: dashen
I didn't say it means anything, I just posted the words themselves and asked if was accurate. Please don't put words in my mouth, I'm attempting to learn.

If this is about punishment, what is the punishment for intercourse when married to the child? Consider the situation as stated there, if the yavam makes the kid his legal wife via intercourse, what would the punishment be?



posted on Nov, 26 2017 @ 01:06 PM
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a reply to: Noncents

the words themselves are an imprecise translation lacking context

depending on the circumstances ranging from flogging to within an inch of his life, or capital punishment.
but only when the talmudic courts were in power, thousands of years ago.

and the marriage would only be in effect insofar as to punish the offender, and this case is hypothetical in its entirety because it would violate several other talmudic prohibitions that forbid such a case in the first place .

it is forbidden to marry a girl without her consent, such a marriage is not binding under jewish law.
edit on 26-11-2017 by dashen because: (no reason given)



posted on Nov, 26 2017 @ 01:17 PM
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originally posted by: dashen
a reply to: Noncents
it is forbidden to marry a girl without her consent, such a marriage is not binding under jewish law.

But consent is given as being old enough to say, "I like him".

As you also quoted, it is permitted for a father to marry off his daughter once she can say that. That would make it a legal marriage with intercourse specifically permitted.

Please help me out here. If you've got passages stating this is not legal in jewish law, I'd like to know just to clear this up.



posted on Nov, 26 2017 @ 01:22 PM
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a reply to: Noncents

i posted several sourced links above.

minimally she must be of child bearing age, not forced against her will, not too many years younger than her mate, and many more prohibitions that are punishable by severe lashings

and most important of all. if the girl feels like she is being pressured into the marriage at any time she can have the Rabbinic court prevent it or declare it annulled retroactively, thereby having the ones who forced her incur punishment
edit on 26-11-2017 by dashen because: (no reason given)



posted on Nov, 26 2017 @ 01:49 PM
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a reply to: dashen
So there are no passages in the Torah which state intercourse with children is not legal under jewish law? Because I've re-read what you've posted and I can't find anything saying that.

As one of the links you provided mentions, it is also worth admitting that the Talmud is not law nor even recognized by all jews. The Torah is all that really matters and the Torah does permit this?
edit on 26-11-2017 by Noncents because: Question



posted on Nov, 26 2017 @ 01:59 PM
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a reply to: Noncents

the torah is the talmud, and the talmud is the torah. they are incomprehensible without one another.

and yes, what individual jews outside the scope of/or against rabbinical law do is not indicative of the Law or the people in general.

and as far as direct prohibitions in the Pentateuch there are several against rape, forced marriage, marrying two sisters, and several myriad sexual prohibitions.

marrying a small child need not be mentioned as all verses referring to marriage reference a man and woman.



posted on Nov, 26 2017 @ 02:06 PM
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a reply to: dashen
I have to disagree that they are the same thing. But thank you for pointing out that the Torah does not state this is against jewish law.



posted on Nov, 26 2017 @ 02:16 PM
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a reply to: Noncents

It is prohibited.
The Pentateuch refers to the TORAHS, the written and oral.
the Torah tell people to wear phylacteries, but offers no clue WHATSOEVER on what those are.
all the rules and details are passed down in oral traditions which became the talmud
if you allow your ignorance of the subject matter to dictate your opinion of it you will never be speaking from a place of objectivity or truthfulness



posted on Nov, 26 2017 @ 02:33 PM
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a reply to: dashen
They do not have the same status. The Talmud is a collection of rabbinic discussions. The oral part is just reflections on the written part. They are the thoughts of rabbis about the law, not the law itself. And the Torah does not prohibit the situation at hand.

As one of the links you posted mentions, this is one situation where the Torah and Talmud differ.



posted on Nov, 26 2017 @ 02:34 PM
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a reply to: dashen


originally posted by: dashen

the Torah tell people to wear phylacteries, but offers no clue WHATSOEVER on what those are.
all the rules and details are passed down in oral traditions which became the talmud
if you allow your ignorance of the subject matter to dictate your opinion of it you will never be speaking from a place of objectivity or truthfulness


Phylacteries, also called tefillin, are small, square leather boxes containing portions of Scripture worn by Conservative and Orthodox Jews during prayer services.



Before you advise once more someone to educate himself ...



posted on Nov, 26 2017 @ 02:36 PM
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a reply to: theultimatebelgianjoke

now show me the verse in the Torah that says Phylacteris are small leather boxes with scrolls in them.

you cant.

because it doesnt exist.

it tells you to wear them, but nowhere does it say WHAT they are



posted on Nov, 26 2017 @ 02:38 PM
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whatever. this thread is hopelessly derailed,

I am done with this one. if you want to open a topical thread i will meet you there



posted on Nov, 26 2017 @ 02:51 PM
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a reply to: dashen

As if the Torah was providing a definition of every single word in it. It is not a dictionary.

 


There is a 2014 book called Clinton, Inc.: The Audacious Rebuilding of a Political Machine

The author states that circa 1997-1998, Netanyahu was using intercepted phone sex conversations between the president and Lewinsky to force the release of American Jonathan Pollard, who had been caught spying on behalf of the Israelis. Clinton was keen to play ball with Netanyhu and soon followed with a desperate plea to release Pollard but was denied at the time by CIA director George Tenet.
There are also claims that other sex calls with other women were intercepted by the British and the Russians.
The majority of the book was compiled by using paperwork named the “Monica Files” obtained by a team of lawyers and investigators hired by Lewinsky as a legal defense in case action was taken against the President, and obtained by the author.

Nice example of such blackmail ...



posted on Nov, 26 2017 @ 03:10 PM
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Thread closed for staff review.







 
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