I have a question somewhat similar to the one proposed by MissSmartyPants in Was Flight93
Supposed To Hit Bldg7
(but this one should be answerable). It is based on the notion, that it is peculiar that two so identical collapses with
two so identical explanations took place after two so different periods of time.
The North tower was struck first, and collapsed second after 102 minutes.
The South tower was struck second, and collapsed first after 56 minutes.
There are of course a million possible explanations as to why one of the two identical buildings would weaken twice as fast as the other.
(For instance, even though the impacts were similar enough to produce the same hitherto unforeseen outcome, the impacts were just that; 'similar',
However, and here is what my question hinges upon, if one assumes that the collapses was disguised demolitions and part of a grand plan, would it then
not make sense that the masterminds behind it a)
had a tightly planned timeline for the day, and b)
that they would want as few
peculiarities as possible and thus would plan for approximately the same burn-period, and c)
that they would want the hijackings to take place
roughly at the same time, so that if one failed, the other would not be warned in time?
That would make sense to me.
And, now, finally, my question: Was flight 175 supposed to hit its target before flight 11 hit its; was flight 175 unexpectedly rescheduled, thus
messing with the timeline?
I know that flight 175 was 14 minutes delayed, but so was flight 11. So that makes no difference. However, delays are measured against the allocated
timeslot, and it does indeed happen that timeslots are reallocated in and by either the departure or the arrival airport, and it even happens that
individual timeslots are traded amongst airlines (or at least it did) - the right timeslot can be quite valuable in this low margin industry.
If that is the case the 'real' delay would not figure in any statistics as it would not be considered a delay, but I would think that it would
figure *somewhere*. Perhaps there are records of the previous flights on the route to which the departure time could be compared - and I just do not
know how to go about finding those.
But would it not be interesting to find out that if not for a delay, the hijackings would have taken place at roughly the same time and that if not
for that delay the burn times would have been much more similar?
To me that would very much points towards the conspiracist take on the events - and likewise, if it is established that there were no rescheduling,
ity would point towards the official version.
I would quite like to find out - what say you, has this already been looked at, is there some great counterpoint that I have not thought of rendering
the question meaningless, or do you have an idea about how to go about checking for 16 year old reschedulings?