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If something has no cause, does it have a beginning?
What say you?
originally posted by: TzarChasm
a reply to: edmc^2
If something has no cause, does it have a beginning?
What say you?
after 25+ pages of nothing but back and forth bickering and rhetoric, i now pose that very question to YOU. and i ask an additional question as well: how exactly does your answer resolve the conundrum at hand, without using cheap tricks/assumptions/nonsequiturs/sleight of mind? i must insist on a legitimate solution, seeing how you are so confident in your deductive abilities. let us see if you are not stumped by the very answer you propose to have ingeniously devised.
If something has no cause, does it have a beginning?
No. It can't have a beginning since it's eternal.
That's all we're left with to untangle this conundrum. Any other explanation goes back to an infinite regress.
Occam's Razor.
Now, who or what that uncaused cause is - up to you.
originally posted by: MotherMayEye
a reply to: TzarChasm
Not to detract from your wonderful comment and question -- I'd like the answer(s) from the OP, too -- but I would like to interject a thought.
This entire thread is built on the premise that a cause must come before an effect in a linear timeline.
Not only has that premise been proven wrong in experiments with photons and screens (link previously posted), but it is evident in real life, too.
For example, you get a wedding invitation from a friend 2000 miles away. You RSVP that you will attend and purchase an airline ticket for $500...you are so excited about the trip. That is cause and effect in chronological order.
BUT then something terrible happens: the groom dies in a car crash. The airline refuses to refund the money for the ticket. You are out $500 and the 'cause' of you spending $500 on an airline ticket that you don't need has come AFTER the effect of actually spending $500 on an airline ticket you don't need.
In fact, had you known about the groom's certain demise, you wouldn't have bought the ticket and/or would have warned the groom and saved his life.
But whether you knew the future or not, the future still affected the past.
I don't think it's a given that every cause must come before an effect in a linear timeline. We travel through the arrow of time, in one direction, and we can pretty much only make sense of 'cause' coming before 'effect,' because that is a limitation of our perception.
IF we could see the future, you better believe the future would very clearly and definitely have a significant affect on the past. And then we would rewrite the future...so the future we 'saw' was not even the future, at all.
All of time (even infinity) is a part of the 'State of Everything' -- so the "cause" of the 'State of Everything' (...or anything, at all) is not limited to events in the past...whether we can see the future and consider its effects on the past or not.
If something has no cause, does it have a beginning?
What say
Here's my answer:
To avoid the infinite regress (of an infinite causes) - the only alternative is to conclude that an uncaused - first - cause was the ultimate source/cause of everything with a beginning.
If something has no cause, does it have a beginning?
No. It can't have a beginning since it's eternal.
That's all we're left with to untangle this conundrum. Any other explanation goes back to an infinite regress.
Occam's Razor.
Now, who or what that uncaused cause is - up to you.
So long as the universe had a beginning, we could suppose it had a creator. But if the universe is really completely self-contained, having no boundary or edge, it would have neither beginning nor end: it would simply be. What place, then, for a creator?
Stephen Hawking
originally posted by: edmc^2
originally posted by: MotherMayEye
originally posted by: edmc^2
If something has no cause, does it have a beginning?
No, again, IMO.
But a 'cause' doesn't need to predate the 'beginning.' It just needs to 'cause' something to have a beginning.
Quite right. It doesn't need to predate the beginning since it was always there to 'cause' something to have a beginning.
Question now is this - based on what was "caused" to exist, does the the 'cause' sentient?
not a pet rock?
To fully describe the effect, though, is to say the purchase of the ticket was unnecessary -- at the time it was purchased. No, the purchaser didn't know it was unnecessary, at the time of purchase, but it was always unnecessary because the future caused it to be. The future made that certain.
originally posted by: MotherMayEye
a reply to: Willtell
To fully describe the effect, though, is to say the purchase of the ticket was unnecessary -- at the time it was purchased. No, the purchaser didn't know it was unnecessary, at the time of purchase, but it was always unnecessary because the future caused it to be. The future made that certain.
Now that both the cause and the effect are in the past...it's easy to understand that. But if we could have seen both before they happened, it would have made perfect sense as a cause/effect scenario, too.
ETA: Also, your new equation is precisely what I have been saying...a cause can come after an effect. The universe(s) is a 'ticket you don't need,' so to speak, that was 'caused' to be a 'ticket that you don't need' by something in the future, in linear time.
ETA: Or a 'cause' that exists simultaneously and infinitely with/within it.
originally posted by: TzarChasm
a reply to: MotherMayEye
To fully describe the effect, though, is to say the purchase of the ticket was unnecessary -- at the time it was purchased. No, the purchaser didn't know it was unnecessary, at the time of purchase, but it was always unnecessary because the future caused it to be. The future made that certain.
so it is necessary to attend the wedding but unnecessary to attend the funeral. questionable morals aside... the cause changed its stripes, not its impetus. i dont know why you translated physics into psychology either. apples and oranges, particles and emotions.
the op (edmc) has already indicated that this question/conundrum is pretty open ended, ergo inconclusive. seems pretty logical to me. i prefer to leave it to experts with equipment and techniques that surpass the average ats member.
originally posted by: dragonridr
originally posted by: MotherMayEye
a reply to: Willtell
To fully describe the effect, though, is to say the purchase of the ticket was unnecessary -- at the time it was purchased. No, the purchaser didn't know it was unnecessary, at the time of purchase, but it was always unnecessary because the future caused it to be. The future made that certain.
Now that both the cause and the effect are in the past...it's easy to understand that. But if we could have seen both before they happened, it would have made perfect sense as a cause/effect scenario, too.
ETA: Also, your new equation is precisely what I have been saying...a cause can come after an effect. The universe(s) is a 'ticket you don't need,' so to speak, that was 'caused' to be a 'ticket that you don't need' by something in the future, in linear time.
ETA: Or a 'cause' that exists simultaneously and infinitely with/within it.
I read one paper that discussed the universe creating itself do to the fact in spacetime past present and future are all there.
originally posted by: Noinden
a reply to: Phantom423
As a polytheist, I have no issue with this I still want to know why these people are "there has to be a cause" (does there?) but can't find one for their deity. I know logic is not expected from creationists
They go round and round explaining how stuffs work and how science work but never giving an answer. Sometimes they say the question doesn't make sense. Some say we don't know the answer. But some protest that it's a leading question. But really, are they being honest as to what they know or is it that they don't want to admit the obvious?