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originally posted by: Noncents
a reply to: bigfatfurrytexan
If each person of a state has the same chance to vote, barring restrictions that would make someone ineligible, and that vote was represented correctly by an electoral college elector, how would that create under-representation?
I'm sorry, I don't think I'm understanding how that could happen. The system we currently have where the popular vote can be ignored seems like under-representation on a wide scale. Using the same example from before, if 53% of a state votes for candidate A and the elector votes for candidate B that's a 53% of the state under-represented.
If the electors had to follow the majority vote in their states and each vote was weighed the same across the board then that would be a 1:1 representation rate. Everyone equal.
I'm only talking about the presidential election process. I'm definitely not the guy to talk to about the rest of the system.
originally posted by: Lice000
a reply to: OtherSideOfTheCoin
And people call americans uneducated...
We are not a democracy as so many others have pointed out
It would be like saying the UK is a monarchy...you guys still worship the royal family right?
So the idea that America is a democracy is fundamentally wrong its actually a Republic