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Okay, Which one is correct then?

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posted on Jul, 10 2016 @ 05:00 PM
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originally posted by: DaathSader

originally posted by: ChesterJohn
a reply to: DaathSader
We already told you but you failed to listen.

How does God divide his word? Historical, prophetical, wisdom, gospels, Church writings, Proverbs, Psalams.

Church of God, Jews and Gentiles.

Who, what, when, where, why, which and how.

Comparing scripture to scripture as the Holy Ghost does.

But for someone who claims to study the Bible you sure don't know how to study very well.


2 Timothy 2:15 Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.





No you didn't. You are saying that you did, but didn't and can't and of coursr it's my fault.

But you didn't, haven't, done anything but send pretty harassing comments while thinking you are being righteous.


And in the process proven me correct.

Thanks. I'm done here.


Here ya go.

www.rightlydividing.org...



posted on Jul, 10 2016 @ 05:26 PM
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a reply to: DaathSader

No, He was inferior to the FATHER while on Earth in the flesh of man ONLY in regards to office, not personhood. The Father was in Heaven and on the throne. I'll explain it to you in this manner.

I can say that Barack Obama is a much greater man than I am because of the office he holds, but he in no way is a better man than me, we are both human men who are flawed. Jesus saying the Father was greater than Him isn't saying He wasn't God, He clearly said He was many times. Especially in Him accepting worship many times. Why would Jesus accept worship after telling Satan that man shall worship God only? He was murdered by the Jews for claiming to be God.
edit on 7 10 2016 by NOTurTypical because: (no reason given)



posted on Jul, 10 2016 @ 05:31 PM
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a reply to: NOTurTypical

Except Jesus said the Father is actually greater then ALL... which would include himself

He wouldn't even consider himself good... Let alone God




posted on Jul, 10 2016 @ 05:34 PM
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originally posted by: DaathSader
a reply to: ChesterJohn

Romans 10:12

12 For there is no distinction between Jew or Gentile.

So if you are done being childish, who is being divided?


No distinction between Jew and Gentile IN CHRIST. There still is a distinction between Jew and Gentile in the flesh. Paul also said there is no difference between male and female in Christ, yet clearly in the natural we have different sexes.

That's what "rightly dividing the Word" means.


edit on 7 10 2016 by NOTurTypical because: (no reason given)



posted on Jul, 10 2016 @ 05:39 PM
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originally posted by: Akragon
a reply to: NOTurTypical

Except Jesus said the Father is actually greater then ALL... which would include himself

He wouldn't even consider himself good... Let alone God



I read that completely differently. Jesus was trying to ask the man why he was calling Him good, since only God was good. And saying something is greater isn't saying myself is not equal in personhood. I used the example of Barack Obama to prove this. You can also look at what Jesus said about John the Baptist, that there was none born of a woman who was greater than him. That doesn't mean no one else was human. Greater is a statement of authority or position, Jesus took on flesh for His mission, that would make the Father easily greater because the Father was in Heaven on the throne. Jesus limited Himself by choice when He took on flesh.



posted on Jul, 10 2016 @ 05:43 PM
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a reply to: NOTurTypical

Point being...

HE never considered himself equal to God the Father... made no attempt at even making such a statement...

Even upon returning to heaven he wasn't equal to the Father which is clearly shown in Matthew 28

And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth

IF HE was equal... HE wouldn't have needed such power to be given...

And only ONE has that power.... and obviously wasn't himself, in flesh or spirit...




posted on Jul, 10 2016 @ 05:45 PM
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a reply to: Akragon

Answer me this, when being tempted by Satan in the Judean wilderness He told him that man shall worship God only.

Yet Jesus accepted worship from men and angels.

WHY?



posted on Jul, 10 2016 @ 05:50 PM
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To the OP all I can say is that the issue will never be settled and the answers are only limited to what the mind can conceive of.

Which is a ton. The most important thing to realize is the reason people don't consider it an issue is they lack guidance in life. They have been told by people they trust all their life that this and this is true but once you examine the Bible you just notice things that aren't right and the more you dig the less honest it gets to the point of fascination that so many people take this as a real history of the world when it clearly is the greater combined mythology of the east told from a pro Israel/Judaic perspective with added features and changes over the years from the transition to Monotheism and attempts to make Israel retroactively monotheistic hidden in translation it is overwhelming actually, and sad and funny but definitely not history.

But if you can get over that fact you can actually learn a sh t ton about the ancient world and compare it to other religions and cultures and you will see they have always adopted ideas and adapted for changes that were improvements.

But that is not the case today. 3 religions who worship the same God are always engineering wars with each other while maintaining diplomatic relations and nobody seems to get that they work together at the top and sacrifice us off in fake wars while living the lives they say not to.



posted on Jul, 10 2016 @ 05:54 PM
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originally posted by: NOTurTypical
a reply to: Akragon

Answer me this, when being tempted by Satan in the Judean wilderness He told him that man shall worship God only.

Yet Jesus accepted worship from men and angels.

WHY?


First born over all creation... the only man who remembered being with the Father

Gods only son apparently... Theres plenty of ways to explain those instances...

Then theres this...

Now when Jesus was born in Bethlehem of Judaea in the days of Herod the king, behold, there came wise men from the east to Jerusalem,

2 Saying, Where is he that is born King of the Jews? for we have seen his star in the east, and are come to worship him.

So clearly they thought he was a King... Messiah perhaps

What they didn't do is worship him as God in the flesh... that idea came much later...

I think its more likely no one ever worshipped him at all...

but i could be wrong




posted on Jul, 10 2016 @ 06:00 PM
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originally posted by: Akragon

originally posted by: NOTurTypical
a reply to: Akragon

Answer me this, when being tempted by Satan in the Judean wilderness He told him that man shall worship God only.

Yet Jesus accepted worship from men and angels.

WHY?


First born over all creation... the only man who remembered being with the Father

Gods only son apparently... Theres plenty of ways to explain those instances...

Then theres this...

Now when Jesus was born in Bethlehem of Judaea in the days of Herod the king, behold, there came wise men from the east to Jerusalem,

2 Saying, Where is he that is born King of the Jews? for we have seen his star in the east, and are come to worship him.

So clearly they thought he was a King... Messiah perhaps

What they didn't do is worship him as God in the flesh... that idea came much later...

I think its more likely no one ever worshipped him at all...

but i could be wrong



He did say He and the Father were one and any man who has seen Him has seen the Father.



posted on Jul, 10 2016 @ 06:02 PM
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a reply to: Black_Fox

Trust me.. this moral foundation you speak of hasn't always been so obvious and hallowed. A lot of historical peoples would have laughed at such assertions as ridiculous and weak.

We only need to remove a few of our modern conveniences and our true animal nature would reveal itself in all its primal glory. A societal collapse could lead to such similar barbaric cultures once again in record time. The only ingredient missing is the right catalyst and we could potentially see our moral foundations deteriorate in an orgy of bloodlust and bloodletting in name of the blood god.



posted on Jul, 10 2016 @ 06:03 PM
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a reply to: In4ormant

This is true, but HE did not mean ONE and the same... or even equal to the Father....

When two people are married they also become ONE... does that make them the same person?

And as far as him saying when you've seen me you've seen the Father... Is he not considered an image of God, just as a son is an image of his Father?

When one looks in the mirror... is that image equal to the person you see?




posted on Jul, 10 2016 @ 06:05 PM
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originally posted by: Akragon
a reply to: In4ormant

This is true, but HE did not mean ONE and the same... or even equal to the Father....

When two people are married they also become ONE... does that make them the same person?

And as far as him saying when you've seen me you've seen the Father... Is he not considered an image of God, just as a son is an image of his Father?

When one looks in the mirror... is that image equal to the person you see?



How do you know what he meant?

The people around him thought he believed himself God because they stoned him for it.



posted on Jul, 10 2016 @ 06:09 PM
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originally posted by: NOTurTypical

originally posted by: DaathSader
a reply to: ChesterJohn

Romans 10:12

12 For there is no distinction between Jew or Gentile.

So if you are done being childish, who is being divided?


No distinction between Jew and Gentile IN CHRIST. There still is a distinction between Jew and Gentile in the flesh. Paul also said there is no difference between male and female in Christ, yet clearly in the natural we have different sexes.

That's what "rightly dividing the Word" means.



That is just incredibly incorrect, there is no Jewish Christianity that only follows certain books and its Gentile counterpart that follows the rest.

Messianic Judaism uses all the same books as Gentile Christianity and dividing the word of truth is not a real thing

You are taking a statement that is designed to tear down walls and turning it into a statement of building walls.

No distinction, no distinction in Christ.

Same exact thing. No distinction means no distinction.

It doesn't mean yes to distinction. Jesus said make disciples of all nations. Not just Jews.


That is actually cleverly disguised anti semitism what you are saying, if you didn't know. Because you are saying that Jewish Christians are different than Gentile Christians AND using Jesus' and the NT statement that there is no distinction and saying that it means yes distinction, just not in Christ.

So why is "in Christ" the reason that there is a distinction? Doesn't even make sense. You are basically saying Christ divides.
edit on 10-7-2016 by DaathSader because: (no reason given)



posted on Jul, 10 2016 @ 06:10 PM
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originally posted by: In4ormant

originally posted by: Akragon
a reply to: In4ormant

This is true, but HE did not mean ONE and the same... or even equal to the Father....

When two people are married they also become ONE... does that make them the same person?

And as far as him saying when you've seen me you've seen the Father... Is he not considered an image of God, just as a son is an image of his Father?

When one looks in the mirror... is that image equal to the person you see?



How do you know what he meant?

The people around him thought he believed himself God because they stoned him for it.


All one has to do is read the gospels to see what he was clearly saying...

The JEWS wanted to stone him because he made himself like God according to their ideas, which were and always have been wrong... Even today a jew will not even type GOD... because its an association with God.

He said he was the son of God... that is making the association without even calling himself God...

Read John 10

He makes it very clear that he said HE is the SON of GOD... Not God in the flesh




posted on Jul, 10 2016 @ 06:13 PM
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a reply to: Akragon

He even points to scripture and says see your own scripture says ye are gods so how am I blaspheming by saying I am his son?

He means we are all his sons, not just him.
edit on 10-7-2016 by DaathSader because: (no reason given)



posted on Jul, 10 2016 @ 06:16 PM
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originally posted by: Akragon

originally posted by: In4ormant

originally posted by: Akragon
a reply to: In4ormant

This is true, but HE did not mean ONE and the same... or even equal to the Father....

When two people are married they also become ONE... does that make them the same person?

And as far as him saying when you've seen me you've seen the Father... Is he not considered an image of God, just as a son is an image of his Father?

When one looks in the mirror... is that image equal to the person you see?



How do you know what he meant?

The people around him thought he believed himself God because they stoned him for it.


All one has to do is read the gospels to see what he was clearly saying...

The JEWS wanted to stone him because he made himself like God according to their ideas, which were and always have been wrong... Even today a jew will not even type GOD... because its an association with God.

He said he was the son of God... that is making the association without even calling himself God...

Read John 10

He makes it very clear that he said HE is the SON of GOD... Not God in the flesh




Aramaic:
Yeshua said to them: “Timeless truth I speak to you: Before Abraham would exist, I AM THE LIVING GOD.

English:
Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I am.”

Seeing God here. "I Am"



posted on Jul, 10 2016 @ 06:17 PM
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a reply to: Akragon

Even though that passage he is quoting is kind of ambiguous and little discussed it is saying that humans can be like gods.

So he is accurate that it is not blasphemous and embarrassing them for not understanding scripture.

I do like this guy a lot.



posted on Jul, 10 2016 @ 06:18 PM
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a reply to: DaathSader It was answered before you distracted from it

a reply to: forthelove

First if you are going to study the Bible you need to know who was originally written too and why. the eye for an eye teaching was for Israel in the land. which pretty much ended in 70AD.

the turn the other cheek is for Israel, the Jews in preparation of them coming into the kingdom. This does not apply to Christians today because under the church teaching we are told, as much as it layeth with us we are to live peaceably with all men.

So that would mean if need be we can defend ourselves if under attack because obviously we cannot live peaceably with someone who is attacking us.

to explain the turn the other cheek and how it works in the kingdom it goes like this. Jesus Christ will be sitting on the throne, being God he sees all that is going on in his kingdom. If someone slaps you are to turn to him the other and if he is doing it unjustly, before he can strike the other cheek Christ will judge him immediately. Judgment comes swiftly in the kingdom.

Learning to rightly divide the word of truth is a commandment to the Church today.

One other things is an unsaved person trying to study the Bile is futile because the Holy Ghost is the instructor



edit on 10-7-2016 by ChesterJohn because: (no reason given)



posted on Jul, 10 2016 @ 06:20 PM
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a reply to: In4ormant


Aramaic:
Yeshua said to them: “Timeless truth I speak to you: Before Abraham would exist, I AM THE LIVING GOD.


Now why would you add "The living God"

Thats just dishonest...


English:
Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I am.”

Seeing God here. "I Am"


I AM only means he pre-existed Abraham... nothing more




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