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Europa League winners getting direct qualification

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posted on May, 23 2016 @ 03:55 AM
Does anybody know what happens with direct qualification to Champions League if both the Europa League winners and runners up have already qualified for the Champions League through their league standings? Who then gets that spot for the Champions League? Does a semi final team then get it?

posted on May, 23 2016 @ 06:35 AM
No quite sure but 1 thing I am sure of, it doesn't concern man utd. Lol.

posted on May, 23 2016 @ 06:38 AM
a reply to: Marcus069

It works off league placings, runners up in cups get nothing

This explains it pretty well

posted on May, 23 2016 @ 06:53 AM
interesting question..

with your hypothetical, i think the leagues that the finalists represent are strengthened in their european rankings..

every league is allotted a certain number of champion's league spots for the top clubs in their respected leagues..
the higher the ranking, the more UCL spots the league has available for teams to fight for throughout the seasons..

maybe another team is added to the pool of the qualifying rounds to play for a champion's league spot..

does liverpool get to play for a UCL spot for being in the final? i dunno

posted on May, 23 2016 @ 06:58 AM
a reply to: Discotech

thanks, it does explain it pretty well

posted on May, 23 2016 @ 07:48 AM
the next teams in line would be those that finished below the qualification group ie most leagues have top three or top four places to qualify in england its the top four so say the champions win the next team would be the 5/6 places

posted on May, 23 2016 @ 07:50 AM
unfortunaly the runner up does not qualify only the winner as liverpool finished 8th they cant even get to the qualification stage this season so no euro footy for thema reply to: AwakenYaMind

posted on May, 23 2016 @ 08:15 AM
a reply to: ukgaz

thanx.. yea, i was quite doubtful for the unfortunate runner up..

too bad Anfield will be quite empty tue/wed/thurs next season

posted on May, 26 2016 @ 10:12 PM
So let me get this straight. Just say Liverpool had won the Europa and had also finished in top 4. Does this then mean that their Champions League spot from the Europa win would go to the 5th placed Spanish team because the Spanish league is ranked number one? Is this correct?
edit on 26-5-2016 by Marcus069 because: (no reason given)

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