posted on Feb, 28 2016 @ 06:11 AM
originally posted by: Debunkology
If there was a correlation between the amount of muslims and rape crime in European countries, then please explain how the four countries got into the
top 25 rape countries, despite NOT having the highest muslim population in Europe?
How is rape defined in all of those countries?
How is rape reporting handled in those countries?
Even between first world countries the same crime can get reported differently. In Sweden, in certain circumstances, penetration with a finger is
recorded as "rape", even though it would be a lesser form of sexual assault in many other countries.
Do the statistics break down the number of "marital" rapes? No, wait, that's not illegal in quite a few countries so it won't appear in the
Are the statistics for reported rapes or rape convictions? The standard for obtaining a conviction is very different under a European legal system
than, say, some of the more fundamentalist Sharia-dominated legal systems.
Is there any difference in how rape victims are treated across these countries? Do any of the countries or cultures stigmatise, marginalise, or even
put the victim at risk of retribution/punishment for making reports? Does that possibly skew the results of any statistics? How do you adjust for
You actual point may or may not be valid. The statistics don't disprove you point, for exactly the same reason they don't prove it either: the value
of statistics drop as their scope broadens, becoming insanely complicated to compensate for all the variations and differences between the subjects of
the analysis, to the point that the numbers can end up as meaningless.
You might have realised this if you had spent less time gloating and telling others to "drink some facts". Or, you did realise it, but don't care
about lying to support your point. Neither option paints you in a very good light, to be honest.