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In fact I got the impression, from your earlier post, than you were claiming "He must go to a judge" as the meaning of the phrase "He will be a judge". Obviously "being" a judge and "going to" a judge are two entirely different things, and that's why I thought a misunderstanding was taking place.
What you were quoting was the account in Genesis ch19 (not ch16), and my comment was purely about the reading of the Genesis text.
originally posted by: windword
No! Because they were refusing to submit to the law, and submit themselves to a judge, they were acting their own judge. It's really not that hard to see.
your awareness is akin to Shakespeare's Macbeth, in which 3 witches are trying to get a perspective by taking turns looking through one eye.
You've got that story wrong as well. That doesn't happen in Macbeth, but it does happen in the Greek myth of the Graeae. Perseus meets them when he's on his mission to collect the head of Medusa.
What did you write as sacrilegious?
That's why Paul said "All scripture is given by inspiration of God".
What do you mean by "which prophets must be killed"? You mean Jeremiah and Isaiah? Or do you mean the prophets of Ba'al?
Deut18:20'But the prophet who speaks a word presumptuously in My name which I have not commanded him to speak, or which he speaks in the name of other gods, that prophet shall die.'
Have you been led by another Christ?
That personal Jesus should express the nature and character of the Christ we know from the Bible. Otherwise, it could simply be any spiritual entity that one doesn't know if it is good or evil. There has to be a standard
originally posted by: pthena
a reply to: WarminIndy
That's why Paul said "All scripture is given by inspiration of God".
Pseudo Paul was writing about Timothy's personal library. There was no canonical library at the time. Timothy's library may well have included Plato, Philo, Psalms of Solomon, & etc.
What do you mean by "which prophets must be killed"? You mean Jeremiah and Isaiah? Or do you mean the prophets of Ba'al?
Deut18:20'But the prophet who speaks a word presumptuously in My name which I have not commanded him to speak, or which he speaks in the name of other gods, that prophet shall die.'
See also Deut. 13 & 17.
Speak in the god's name something that doesn't come true . . . death
Speak in the name of another god . . . death
Speak an oracle that does come true, then encourage seeking gods other than the national god . . . death
Have you been led by another Christ?
As long as it is understood as past tense, yes.
It was fairly traumatic when the big one Christ showed up and mercilessly beat down my little Christ, then kicked him into a coma. I was only 17 for crying out loud!
That personal Jesus should express the nature and character of the Christ we know from the Bible. Otherwise, it could simply be any spiritual entity that one doesn't know if it is good or evil. There has to be a standard
And that's what I was teaching too, while the little guy was comatose.
I no longer pretend to know Jesus.
originally posted by: pthena
a reply to: WarminIndy
What did you write as sacrilegious?
I was asking if it was the sunglasses that you took to be offensive.
As for the wording, I further observed, the Messiah character, if that is who is being depicted, could be said to have 3 fathers: Joseph, David, and the god.
I, by the way, am very Messianic when it comes to Christianity and very Jewish oriented. Maybe that is why we disagree?
Don't you think it is only fair to us that if you are going to pick on us, then do it to them as well? If you can't, then probably examine your own fears and double standards?
please explain to us how you taught the idea of David as His father. What does the Bible really say and what did you say?
(NOW cue those Christians who will now tell us all about it...).
originally posted by: Akragon
a reply to: WarminIndy
I don't recall Jesus ever calling Abraham "Father"...
Kinda goes against him saying "call no man Father"
Luke 13:16 And ought not this woman, being a daughter of Abraham, whom Satan hath bound, lo, these eighteen years, be loosed from this bond on the sabbath day?
5 They called Lot and said to him, “Where are the men who came to stay with you tonight? Bring them out to us! We want to have sex with them!”
The editors of the popular “Living Bible” paraphrase do interpolate wording which unambiguously refers to homosexuality and identifies it as the sin of Sodom. These words have no basis in the Greek, as we shall see. They were inserted in the spirit of a true paraphrase which combines the Bible text with the paraphrasers’ interpretation to give the reader a pleasant reading experience free of intellectual puzzles. Source
The belief that God destroyed Sodom because of homosexuality is a late interpretation. It came into being 1700 years after the destruction of Sodom. No human author of the Old Testament linked Sodom with being gay. In fact, until the inter-testamental period, around 150 BC to AD 100, it is difficult to find any Jewish literature which links Sodom with homosexuality. Since the biblical text makes no mention of homosexuality, anti-gay commentators must read into the text, something the text does not say, in an attempt to make scripture say what they wish it said.
Moses, writing in Genesis 10:19, 13:10, 12, 13, 14:2, 8, 10-11, 12, 17, 21-22, 18:16, 20, 22, 26, 19:1, 4, 24, 28; Deuteronomy 23:17, 29:23, 32:32, and Ezekiel, writing in Ezekiel 16:46, 48-49, 53, 55-56, emphasize Sodom’s lack of hospitality, greed, idolatry, gluttony but neither author mentions gays or lesbians or gay sex or homosexuality as the sin of Sodom. The world must wait until the 163 BC-AD 93 time frame for extra-biblical Jewish writers to begin linking Sodom to particular kinds of same sex activity like pederasty and prostitution.
Source
Why is it, then, that the "sins of Sodom" have become the prototype for "sodomy"? Basically it is the result of the same kind of nationalistic fervour that we have seen much earlier. The Palestinian Jews and Jews of the Dispersion during the period from about 100 BC to AD 100, confronted by pagan Hellenistic "immorality" alien to them, deliberately foisted a homosexual misinterpretation upon the story. They began reacting against "the ways of the Gentiles" just as they had earlier reacted against "the ways of Canaan" and "the ways of Egypt."
Source
originally posted by: WarminIndy
So which church's canon are you going to show us to disprove it?
originally posted by: WakeUpBeer
originally posted by: WarminIndy
So which church's canon are you going to show us to disprove it?
Skeptic's Annotated Bible