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originally posted by: AutumnWitch657
a reply to: Rocker2013
The term sodomite from the 11th and 12th century was used to set apart homosexuals from others. This is not something new and society has always frowned upon it.
originally posted by: boymonkey74
Admit it guys who wouldn't have loved to have partied with Annee during those times .
Dance and such and booze!!
originally posted by: Bone75
originally posted by: AutumnWitch657
Well they may not be ill..... Really I can't believe you threw that in the ring like it's comparable. Good god.
If they weren't comparable, you wouldn't even entertain the idea that pedophiles may not be ill. They ARE ill, but you can't say they are without admitting that homosexuals are ill as well.
originally posted by: AutumnWitch657
a reply to: Annee
Doesn't the word refer to the inhabitants of Sodom in the bible?' I may be wrong but I thought it didn't become a term to indicate homosexuality until the 11th century or so.
originally posted by: Sigismundus
One of the things that David's son Jedediah-Solomon did was to build 'shrines for the Qodeshim' which is sometimes mis-translated 'sodomites' or 'dogs' (Deut. 23:18) as a way to get around the fact that they were sacred male prostitutes who took the woman's sexual position on the fertility altars of the various goddesses (e.g. Asherah, or Astarte, Isis etal.) but the would be 'ritually' dressed as women.