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You need to look at the Bible in its own context. The slavery the Bible talks about is something people willingly entered into as a form of paying off debt
Never dones the Bible condone slavery it only puts guidelines on it
originally posted by: Sremmos80
In order to reason anything, a person must first start with God as He is the objective standard of Truth.
This explains everything about this user.
If this is his square one and ultimate source of reason then nothing said that does not start there will go to deaf ears.
This was said in his second thread that SO closed and rightfully so.
However, you may purchase male or female slaves from among the foreigners who live among you. You may also purchase the children of such resident foreigners, including those who have been born in your land. You may treat them as your property, passing them on to your children as a permanent inheritance. You may treat your slaves like this, but the people of Israel, your relatives, must never be treated this way. (Leviticus 25:44-46 NLT)
When a man strikes his male or female slave with a rod so hard that the slave dies under his hand, he shall be punished. If, however, the slave survives for a day or two, he is not to be punished, since the slave is his own property. (Exodus 21:20-21 NAB)
. So, you're basing your world view on something that has no proof to support it.
Special Pleading: 7.1-4
The final conclusion of the TAG argument is also logically invalid.
7. Thoughts reflect the mind
1. A person's thoughts reflect what he or she is.
2. Absolutely perfect thoughts reflect an absolutely perfect mind.
3. Since the Logical Absolutes are transcendent, absolute, are perfectly consistent, and are independent of the universe, then they reflect a transcendent, absolute, perfect, and independent mind.
4. We call this transcendent, absolute, perfect, and independent mind God.
Even ignoring all the major fallacies up until this point, and accepting the false premise that the logical absolutes are purely conceptual, the final conclusion also makes a case of special pleading. The fact that human minds are capable of conceiving of the logical absolutes to make this very argument, is proof that these concepts are not dependent on an absolutely perfect supreme transcendent mind.
This section of the argument is also related to the ontological argument. Just because you semantically define something transcendent perfect and magical as existing doesn't mean it actually exists.
Without God there is no ultimate basis for the process(logic) by which we derive Truth.
originally posted by: Woodcarver
If god were the source for objective truth, then god would be the same for everyone. Since there is absolutely no consensus of what god is,this plainly puts it in the category of subjective opinion.
originally posted by: ServantOfTheLamb
a reply to: smithjustinb
Logic is the basis for math, so you cannot justify the existence of abstract mathematical absolutes without first having some form of justification for the existence of its basis, Logic.
originally posted by: ServantOfTheLamb
a reply to: smithjustinb
. So, you're basing your world view on something that has no proof to support it.
Without God there is no ultimate basis for the process(logic) by which we derive Truth.
My view is just a belief yes, but it logical and coherent.