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14 After two days was the feast of the Passover, and of unleavened bread: and the chief priests and the scribes sought how they might take him by craft, and put him to death.
2 But they said, Not on the feast day, lest there be an uproar of the people.
15 And straightway in the morning the chief priests held a consultation with the elders and scribes and the whole council, and bound Jesus, and carried him away, and delivered him to Pilate.
33 And when the sixth hour was come, there was darkness over the whole land until the ninth hour.
34 And at the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani? which is, being interpreted, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?
13 When Pilate therefore heard that saying, he brought Jesus forth, and sat down in the judgment seat in a place that is called the Pavement, but in the Hebrew, Gabbatha.
14 And it was the preparation of the passover, and about the sixth hour: and he saith unto the Jews, Behold your King!
42 There laid they Jesus therefore because of the Jews' preparation day; for the sepulchre was nigh at hand.
Jesus WAS NOT executed twice... Period
He DID NOT die twice... Period
the fact is John changed the date of his death to suit his belief that Jesus was "the Passover lamb" but in reality... Marks gospel was likely the actual date of his execution
I have taken the position that the original autographs, which no longer exist, were indeed error free and God inspired.
John 19:31 The Jews, therefore, that the bodies might not remain on the cross on the sabbath, since it was the preparation, (for that sabbath day was a great one,) asked of Pilate that their legs may be broken, and they taken away.
42 there, therefore, because of the preparation of the Jews, because the tomb was nigh, they laid Jesus.
originally posted by: Akragon
What evidence does anyone have of John using a different calendar... him being an observant jew
Lets also consider "The gospel of John" likely wasn't written by John...
originally posted by: Akragon
What evidence does anyone have of John using a different calendar... him being an observant jew
Lets also consider "The gospel of John" likely wasn't written by John...
How on earth does this thought affect the question one way or the other?
And if it doesn't affect the question, why did you put it in?
If anything, it undermines your other point, because it leaves you without any evidence that he was an observant Jew.
Can you provide evidence that indicates that John did not write the Gospel of John?
What I find especially annoying is the idea that the Bible is true even when reduced to its smallest components, such as the practice among proponents of inerrancy of stringing together fragments of verses from all over the Bible into a single new super-verse, that then has to be believed because it is "the word".
To the fundamentalist Christian this may be true according to what they've been taught... but IF one chooses to actually read the bible, said person will find that is not even close to the truth.