posted on Jun, 10 2014 @ 06:12 PM
originally posted by: jmdewey60
So there is no other "Stephen" to compare Act's version to.
We can compare him with the other speakers in Acts.
If everybody in a history speaks with a single voice, it is reasonable to suppose that it is the author's voice.
But if there is variation, then either the author is Shakespeare or there is the possibility that the variation reflects reality.
There is a progression in Acts from "Son of Man" being used to the phrase not being used.
There is no particular reason why Luke should invent
such a progression. If the terminology was just reflecting his own viewpoint, we would
expect him to plump for one version or the other.
If he depicts change and development in the expression of theology, there's a reasonable possibility that this reflects his awareness that there was
change and development.
(I call him Luke as the simplest and quickest way of identifying him. The actual identity of the writer doesn't affect the issue)
edit on 10-6-2014 by DISRAELI because: (no reason given)